Find the current affairs quiz 7 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Current Affairs Quiz – 7 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. The concept of ‘minilateralism’ in international relations is most closely associated with which scholar, who introduced it into academic discussion in 1992?
(A) Joseph Nye
(B) Miles Kahler
(C) Samuel Huntington
(D) Robert Keohane
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Miles Kahler
Q2. Which of the following is NOT typically cited as a key feature of minilateral arrangements?
(A) Limited membership
(B) Issue-specific cooperation
(C) Universal and mandatory participation of all UN member states
(D) Faster decision-making relative to large institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Universal and mandatory participation of all UN member states
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding minilateralism:
It generally involves broader membership and a wider agenda than multilateralism.
It enables ‘cooperation without complete strategic convergence’ among partner countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2 only
Q4. Which of the following is highlighted as a limitation of minilateral arrangements?
(A) They always possess greater legal authority than the United Nations
(B) They can lead to fragmentation of global governance through overlapping coalitions
(C) They eliminate the need for any negotiation among member states
(D) They automatically ensure universal representation of all countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) They can lead to fragmentation of global governance through overlapping coalitions
Q5. With reference to cotton cultivation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India cultivates only two of the four commercially recognised cotton species
(B) India is distinctive in cultivating all four commercially recognised cotton species
(C) Cotton in India is exclusively a Rabi season crop
(D) Cotton requires an annual rainfall of over 200 cm for optimal growth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India is distinctive in cultivating all four commercially recognised cotton species
Q6. Gossypium barbadense, one of the four cotton species cultivated in India, is broadly classified as:
(A) Asian cotton
(B) American Upland cotton
(C) Egyptian cotton
(D) African cotton
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Egyptian cotton
Q7. Which of the following states recorded an especially steep contraction in cotton acreage, falling by about 37.5% to around 80,000 hectares?
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Punjab
Q8. The declining effectiveness of Bt cotton in India, as discussed in recent assessments, is primarily attributed to:
(A) A ban on Bt cotton cultivation since 2006
(B) Development of pest resistance and absence of new approved GM cotton traits since around 2006
(C) Excessive government subsidies discouraging its use
(D) Complete replacement of Bt cotton by organic cotton varieties
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Development of pest resistance and absence of new approved GM cotton traits since around 2006
Q9. Which government initiative for cotton seeks to enhance productivity to around 755 kg/ha through an integrated ‘Farm to Foreign’ (5F) value chain approach?
(A) PM MITRA
(B) Samarth
(C) Kapas Kanti (Cotton Productivity Mission)
(D) Kasturi Cotton India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kapas Kanti (Cotton Productivity Mission)
Q10. Which of the following is cited as a reason for farmers in the northern cotton belt shifting towards paddy cultivation?
(A) Paddy requires significantly more manual labour than cotton
(B) Assured market access through MSP-linked procurement reduces price risk for paddy
(C) Cotton has a shorter and more assured growing season than paddy
(D) Paddy is more resistant to pest attacks than cotton
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Assured market access through MSP-linked procurement reduces price risk for paddy
Q11. The UNEP ‘Limiting Overshoot’ report primarily addresses the challenge of:
(A) Preventing any breach of the 1.5°C threshold under all circumstances
(B) Minimising the magnitude and duration of a temporary breach of 1.5°C warming and reversing it thereafter
(C) Eliminating the use of fossil fuels by 2030
(D) Replacing the Paris Agreement with a new international treaty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Minimising the magnitude and duration of a temporary breach of 1.5°C warming and reversing it thereafter
Q12. As per the ‘Limiting Overshoot’ report, under current policies, global warming could reach approximately how much by 2100?
(A) 1.5°C
(B) 1.8°C
(C) 2.6°C
(D) 4°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2.6°C
Q13. According to the report, every additional five years of high emissions could increase projected peak warming by about how much, requiring substantial additional COâ‚‚ removal to reverse?
(A) 0.01°C
(B) 0.1°C
(C) 0.5°C
(D) 1°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.1°C
Q14. In the ‘Overshoot, Peak and Decline’ framework proposed in the report, which phase is characterised by net-negative emissions, where COâ‚‚ removed exceeds COâ‚‚ emitted?
(A) Overshoot phase
(B) Peak phase
(C) Decline phase
(D) Baseline phase
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Decline phase
Q15. With respect to Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR), the report emphasises that it should be viewed as:
(A) A complete substitute for emission reduction
(B) A complement to deep emissions reductions, not a justification for delaying decarbonisation
(C) Unnecessary for achieving climate goals
(D) Applicable only to developed countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A complement to deep emissions reductions, not a justification for delaying decarbonisation
Q16. Under Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India, the language generally required for proceedings of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and for authoritative texts of Bills and Acts, is:
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) The respective regional language of the State
(D) Sanskrit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) English
Q17. Under Article 348(2) of the Constitution, a Governor may authorise the use of Hindi or another State official language in High Court proceedings:
(A) Without requiring any external approval
(B) Only after obtaining the previous consent of the President
(C) Only with the approval of the Chief Justice of India
(D) Only for the Supreme Court, not High Courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Only after obtaining the previous consent of the President
Q18. With reference to the use of regional languages for judgments, decrees and orders of High Courts, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Such judgments never require an English translation
(B) The Official Languages Act, 1963 permits use of Hindi/State language, but an English translation is mandatory
(C) Only the Supreme Court can authorise their use
(D) This provision applies uniformly to all States without Presidential consent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The Official Languages Act, 1963 permits use of Hindi/State language, but an English translation is mandatory
Q19. The recent demand to make Tamil the principal language of proceedings of the Madras High Court draws attention to which constitutional provision?
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 348
(C) Article 350
(D) Article 351
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 348
Q20. As per recent estimates on India’s wastewater treatment scenario, approximately what proportion of urban sewage generated is currently treated?
(A) About 17%
(B) About 28%
(C) About 52%
(D) About 64%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) About 28%
Q21. Considering the multiple stages of India’s wastewater management chain, the proportion of wastewater considered ‘safely treated and suitable for reuse’ is estimated at approximately:
(A) 17% nationally
(B) 28% nationally
(C) 33% nationally
(D) 60% nationally
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 17% nationally
Q22. The initiative referring to treated wastewater as ‘Apna Jal’ (Our Water), recently notified by Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, primarily aims to:
(A) Increase groundwater extraction for irrigation
(B) Overcome social stigma associated with recycled water and promote its reuse
(C) Ban the use of freshwater for industrial purposes
(D) Privatise all municipal water utilities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Overcome social stigma associated with recycled water and promote its reuse
Q23. Which government mission sets a 20% urban wastewater reuse target and supports sewerage and treatment infrastructure?
(A) Namami Gange Programme
(B) AMRUT 2.0
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission–Gramin Phase II
(D) National River Conservation Plan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) AMRUT 2.0
Q24. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), referenced in the context of wastewater quality standards, primarily indicates:
(A) The salinity level of treated water
(B) The amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms to break down organic matter in water
(C) The total dissolved solids present in wastewater
(D) The temperature variation of discharged effluent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) The amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms to break down organic matter in water
Q25. As per the UN report on sea-level rise presented at the 55th Pacific Islands Forum, global sea levels could rise by at least how much by 2100?
least how much by 2100?
(A) 0.1 metre
(B) 0.5 metre
(C) 1.5 metres
(D) 3 metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 0.5 metre
Q26. Approximately how many people globally are estimated to live in low-elevation coastal areas vulnerable to sea-level rise, as per the UN report?
(A) 77 million
(B) 270 million
(C) 500 million
(D) 770 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 770 million
Q27. With reference to India-specific vulnerabilities highlighted in the UN sea-level rise report, which cities were noted as being at significant risk, together with Dhaka?
(A) Chennai and Visakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai and Kolkata
(C) Surat and Kochi
(D) Goa and Puducherry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Mumbai and Kolkata
Q28. In the context of coastal flooding risk in cities like Mumbai, ‘land subsidence’ refers to:
(A) A rise in sea level due to melting glaciers
(B) A gradual sinking or lowering of land elevation relative to the sea
(C) An increase in land area due to sediment deposition
(D) A government policy restricting coastal construction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A gradual sinking or lowering of land elevation relative to the sea
Q29. Khagantak-243, whose maiden drop test was recently conducted by the IAF, is best described as:
(A) A submarine-launched ballistic missile
(B) An indigenously developed 300-kg-class air-launched precision-guided glide bomb
(C) A hypersonic cruise missile
(D) An unmanned aerial reconnaissance drone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An indigenously developed 300-kg-class air-launched precision-guided glide bomb
Q30. Khagantak-243 has been jointly developed by which two entities, reflecting growing private-sector participation in India’s defence technology sector?
(A) DRDO and HAL
(B) JSR Dynamics and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
(C) ISRO and BEL
(D) Larsen & Toubro and DRDO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) JSR Dynamics and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
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7 September 2026 Current Affairs