Find the current affairs quiz 5 September 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 5 September 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 5 September 2026 (Test Now)
Q1. Belgian Prime Minister Bart De Wever’s recent visit to India was significant primarily because:
(A) It was the first-ever visit by a Belgian Prime Minister to India
(B) It marked the first visit by a Belgian PM to India in nearly two decades
(C) It coincided with the 75th anniversary of India-Belgium relations
(D) It was held to sign a Free Trade Agreement with the EU
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It marked the first visit by a Belgian PM to India in nearly two decades
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the SFPIM–NIIF partnership announced during the India-Belgium visit:
SFPIM is Belgium’s federal investment company.
NIIF is India’s National Investment and Infrastructure Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Q3. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) signed a security cooperation agreement with which entity during the Belgian PM’s visit?
(A) Belgian Federal Police
(B) Europol
(C) Belgian Ministry of Defence
(D) Interpol Brussels Bureau
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Belgian Federal Police
Q4. Belgium established diplomatic relations with independent India in which year, making it one of the earliest European countries to do so?
(A) 1945
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1954
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1947
Q5. With respect to India’s data centre sector, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) India’s operational data centre capacity has increased nearly threefold since 2020, reaching around 1.5 GW
(B) India’s data centre capacity is projected to fall to 1 GW by 2030 due to regulatory restrictions
(C) More than 70% of India’s data centre capacity is spread evenly across all states
(D) The sector is growing at less than 5% CAGR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) India’s operational data centre capacity has increased nearly threefold since 2020, reaching around 1.5 GW
Q6. Which of the following metropolitan regions together account for more than 70% of India’s data centre capacity?
(A) Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru, Delhi-NCR, Hyderabad
(B) Mumbai, Kolkata, Pune, Ahmedabad, Delhi-NCR
(C) Chennai, Kochi, Bengaluru, Lucknow, Hyderabad
(D) Delhi-NCR, Jaipur, Surat, Indore, Bengaluru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru, Delhi-NCR, Hyderabad
Q7. A conventional 100-MW data centre using evaporative cooling may consume or evaporate approximately how much water per day, as highlighted in recent assessments?
(A) 200,000 litres
(B) 2 million litres
(C) 20 million litres
(D) 358 billion litres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2 million litres
Q8. With reference to sustainability benchmarks for data centres, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) A lower Power Usage Effectiveness (PUE) generally indicates better energy efficiency
(B) A higher Power Usage Effectiveness (PUE) generally indicates better energy efficiency
(C) Water Usage Effectiveness (WUE) measures electricity consumption only
(D) PUE and WUE are identical metrics used interchangeably
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) A lower Power Usage Effectiveness (PUE) generally indicates better energy efficiency
Q9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a recommended water-efficient cooling technology for sustainable data centre growth?
(A) Closed-loop liquid cooling
(B) Direct-to-chip cooling
(C) Conventional evaporative cooling as the primary method
(D) Low-water cooling technologies in general
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Conventional evaporative cooling as the primary method
Q10. A 2026 Cambridge-led study found that the vicinity of AI data centres experienced approximately how much average land-surface warming, extending several kilometres beyond the facilities?
(A) 0.5°C
(B) 1°C
(C) 2°C
(D) 5°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2°C
Q11. India’s three-stage nuclear power programme was originally conceptualised under the guidance of:
(A) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(B) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
(C) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. Raja Ramanna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
Q12. In Stage I of India’s nuclear power programme, which reactor type is used, and what is its primary fuel?
(A) Fast Breeder Reactor; Plutonium-239
(B) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor; Natural uranium
(C) Light Water Reactor; Enriched uranium
(D) Thorium reactor; Uranium-233
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor; Natural uranium
Q13. India’s 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR), which recently achieved first criticality, is located at:
(A) Tarapur
(B) Kudankulam
(C) Kalpakkam
(D) Rawatbhata
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kalpakkam
Q14. In Stage III of India’s nuclear programme, Thorium-232 is ultimately converted into which fissile isotope for power generation?
(A) Uranium-235
(B) Uranium-233
(C) Plutonium-239
(D) Uranium-238
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Uranium-233
Q15. The SHANTI Act, 2025, referenced in the context of India’s nuclear sector reforms, primarily aims to:
(A) Ban all private participation in nuclear energy
(B) Modernise the nuclear liability and legal framework to facilitate greater private and international participation
(C) Transfer all nuclear regulatory powers to state governments
(D) Phase out the use of thorium in India’s nuclear programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Modernise the nuclear liability and legal framework to facilitate greater private and international participation
Q16. As per India’s Nuclear Energy Mission targets mentioned in recent policy announcements, India aims to achieve approximately how much nuclear capacity by 2047?
(A) 22 GW
(B) 50 GW
(C) 100 GW
(D) 150 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 100 GW
Q17. The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards were instituted in which year?
(A) 1953
(B) 1978
(C) 1993
(D) 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1993
Q18. Tenzing Norgay, after whom the award is named, achieved which historic feat in 1953?
(A) First solo circumnavigation of the globe
(B) First ascent of Mount Everest along with Edmund Hillary
(C) First expedition to the South Pole
(D) First ascent of K2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) First ascent of Mount Everest along with Edmund Hillary
Q19. Baljeet Kaur, a 2024 recipient of the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award, is recognised for which achievement?
(A) First Indian to summit Mount Everest without supplemental oxygen
(B) First Indian to summit five 8,000-metre peaks in a single season
(C) First Indian woman to sail solo around the world
(D) First Indian to complete the Explorers Grand Slam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) First Indian to summit five 8,000-metre peaks in a single season
Q20. With reference to maritime zones, the territorial waters of a coastal State extend up to how many nautical miles from the baseline?
(A) 12 nautical miles
(B) 24 nautical miles
(C) 100 nautical miles
(D) 200 nautical miles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 12 nautical miles
Q21. In the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), a coastal State primarily enjoys:
(A) Full sovereignty identical to territorial waters
(B) Sovereign rights for exploration, exploitation and conservation of resources
(C) No rights over marine resources
(D) Rights limited only to defence and security matters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sovereign rights for exploration, exploitation and conservation of resources
Q22. Under the Constitution of India, legislative authority over fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters falls under:
(A) State List – Entry 21
(B) Union List – Entry 57
(C) Concurrent List – Entry 20
(D) Ninth Schedule
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Union List – Entry 57
Q23. The Japan Credit Rating Agency (JCR) recently upgraded India’s sovereign credit rating from which of the following levels?
(A) BBB to BBB+
(B) BBB+ to A-
(C) A- to A
(D) A to A+
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) BBB+ to A-
Q24. Which of the following was NOT cited as a factor supporting JCR’s upgrade of India’s sovereign rating?
(A) Sustained economic growth
(B) Improved health of the banking sector
(C) Rising fiscal deficit and declining forex reserves
(D) Continuing structural reforms
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rising fiscal deficit and declining forex reserves
Q25. A Long-Term Foreign Currency Issuer Rating primarily assesses a sovereign’s:
(A) Ability to service debt denominated in its own domestic currency
(B) Ability to service debt denominated in foreign currencies over a longer period
(C) Short-term liquidity position only
(D) Ability to control domestic inflation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ability to service debt denominated in foreign currencies over a longer period
Q26. Under Article 124(3) of the Constitution, which of the following is NOT a qualification for appointment as a Supreme Court judge?
(A) Having served as a High Court judge for at least five years
(B) Having practised as an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years
(C) Being considered by the President to be a ‘distinguished jurist’
(D) Having served as a Union Cabinet Minister for at least five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Having served as a Union Cabinet Minister for at least five years
Q27. The ‘distinguished jurist’ route for appointment as a High Court judge, introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, was subsequently:
(A) Retained and expanded by the 44th Amendment
(B) Removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
(C) Struck down by the Supreme Court
(D) Extended to district judges as well
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
Q28. EOS-05, launched by ISRO, was placed in orbit using which launch vehicle, and was earlier designated by which name?
(A) PSLV-C51; RISAT-2A
(B) GSLV-F17; GISAT-1A
(C) GSLV Mark III; Cartosat-3
(D) SSLV-D1; EOS-01
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) GSLV-F17; GISAT-1A
Q29. Which of the following statements about a geostationary orbit is correct?
(A) It has significant inclination relative to the equator
(B) It is a circular geosynchronous orbit over the equator with zero inclination
(C) Satellites in this orbit complete one revolution every 90 minutes
(D) It operates at an altitude of about 500 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It is a circular geosynchronous orbit over the equator with zero inclination
Q30. Kyrgyzstan, which recently hosted the 26th SCO Summit, shares its international boundary with which of the following countries to its east and southeast?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) China
(C) Tajikistan
(D) Uzbekistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) China
Download PDF of 5 September Current Affairs Quiz
Download the 5 September 2026 Current Affairs Quiz PDF for easy access to all questions and answers. This handy resource is perfect for offline practice or revision, helping you stay updated with the latest current affairs at your convenience.
Study Current Affairs of 5 September 2026
For a detailed understanding of the key events from 5 September 2026, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. This section covers all major news and developments, providing in-depth insights that are crucial for exam preparation and staying informed.
5 September 2026 Current Affairs