Find the current affairs quiz 4 August 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Current Affairs Quiz – 4 August 2026 (Test Now)
1. The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026 amends the Registration of Births and
Deaths Act, which was last amended in:
A) 2019
B) 2021
C) 2023
D) 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2023
2. Under the Bill, births and deaths must ordinarily be reported to the local registrar within:
A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 21 days
D) 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 21 days
3. For a delay of 1–2 years in registration, approval is required from the DM, SDM or authorised Executive
Magistrate under which provision?
A) Section 12(1) of the BNSS, 2023
B) Section 14(1) of the BNSS, 2023
C) Section 18(1) of the BNSS, 2023
D) Section 20(1) of the BNSS, 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 14(1) of the BNSS, 2023
4. Sea-level rise affecting Bay of Bengal littoral states is estimated at approximately how much annually?
A) 2.2 mm
B) 3.3 mm
C) 4.4 mm
D) 5.5 mm
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4.4 mm
5. Shifting adjudication of delayed registrations to judicial magistrates is said to advance the principle of
separation of powers embodied in which Article?
A) Article 32
B) Article 44
C) Article 50
D) Article 141
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 50
6. Strong civil registration systems, as strengthened by the 2026 Bill, contribute to which SDG target?
A) SDG 4.7
B) SDG 10.2
C) SDG 16.9
D) SDG 17.18
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) SDG 16.9
7. A Zero FIR can be registered:
A) Only at the police station with territorial jurisdiction
B) At any police station, irrespective of jurisdiction
C) Only by a magistrate’s order
D) Only for cognizable offences against the State
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) At any police station, irrespective of jurisdiction
8. The concept of Zero FIR was prominently recommended by which committee following the Nirbhaya case?
A) Justice Malimath Committee
B) Justice Verma Committee
C) Justice Srikrishna Committee
D) Justice Lodha Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Justice Verma Committee
9. Under Section 352 of the BNS, intentional insult is punishable only if it is proven that the accused intended
or knew the insult was likely to:
A) Section 292
B) Section 293
C) Section 294
D) Section 509
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 294
10. IRDAI’s recent reforms allow insurance sector capital and share-transfer regulations to be relaxed to support FDI up to:
A) 49%
B) 74%
C) 90%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 100%
11. In Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra (1965), the Supreme Court applied which test to assess
obscenity?
A) Community Standards Test
B) Hicklin Test
C) Contextual Harm Test
D) Reasonable Person Test
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Hicklin Test
12. In Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal (2014), the Supreme Court discarded the Hicklin test in favour of
the:
A) Community Standards Test
B) Strict Scrutiny Test
C) Clear and Present Danger Test
D) Proportionality Test
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Community Standards Test
13. The Doordarshan v. Anand Patwardhan (2006) judgment held that obscenity should be assessed by:
A) Isolating individual objectionable scenes
B) Considering the work as a whole
C) Applying the Hicklin test strictly
D) Referring exclusively to legislative intent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Considering the work as a whole
14. Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rojgar Yojana (PM-VBRY) is implemented over which period?
A) 1 April 2025 – 31 March 2027
B) 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
C) 1 January 2026 – 31 December 2027
D) 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
15. What is the total financial outlay of PM-VBRY?
A) ₹49,446 crore
B) ₹69,446 crore
C) ₹99,446 crore
D) ₹1,19,446 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹99,446 crore
16. Under PM-VBRY, more than how many first-time employees joined the formal workforce since August 2025?
A) 50 lakh
B) 62 lakh
C) 72 lakh
D) 85 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 72 lakh
17. Under PM-VBRY’s Part A component, first-time employees earning up to ₹1 lakh/month receive a one-time incentive equal to one month’s EPF wage, capped at:
A) ₹10,000
B) ₹15,000
C) ₹20,000
D) ₹25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹15,000
18. Under PM-VBRY’s Part B component, employers hiring eligible employees receive an incentive of up to how much per month for 2 years?
A) ₹1,500
B) ₹2,000
C) ₹3,000
D) ₹5,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹3,000
19. The Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY), approved with an outlay of ₹5,070 crore, targets how much floating solar capacity by FY 2030–31?
A) 2 GW
B) 3 GW
C) 5 GW
D) 8 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5 GW
20. Under PM-SSY, what is the Central Financial Assistance (CFA) provided per MW to developers after commissioning?
A) ₹50 lakh
B) ₹75 lakh
C) ₹1 crore
D) ₹1.5 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹1 crore
21. India’s largest operational floating solar project, the Omkareshwar Floating Solar Park, is located on which river?
A) Narmada River
B) Tapi River
C) Chambal River
D) Betwa River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Narmada River
22. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Park’s current operational capacity is:
A) 178 MW
B) 228 MW
C) 278 MW
D) 328 MW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 278 MW
23.’Samudra Manthan’ (National Offshore Exploration Scheme) has been approved with an outlay of:
A) ₹64,084 crore
B) ₹74,084 crore
C) ₹84,084 crore
D) ₹94,084 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹84,084 crore
24. India currently relies on imports for approximately what share of its crude oil requirements, as cited under Samudra Manthan?
A) 70%
B) 78%
C) 88%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 88%
25. Under Samudra Manthan’s Risk Drilling component, Central financial support is capped at how much per well?
A) ₹375 crore
B) ₹525 crore
C) ₹675 crore
D) ₹825 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹675 crore
26. Samudra Manthan aims to discover more than how many Million Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent (MMTOE) in domestic reserves?
A) 400 MMTOE
B) 500 MMTOE
C) 600 MMTOE
D) 700 MMTOE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 600 MMTOE
27. The Second Judges Case (1993) reinterpreted ‘consultation’ under Articles 124(2) and 217(1) as requiring:
A) Non-binding advice
B) Effective concurrence, establishing judicial primacy
C) Executive primacy in appointments
D) Parliamentary ratification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Effective concurrence, establishing judicial primacy
28. The Supreme Court Collegium consists of the Chief Justice of India and how many senior-most Supreme Court judges?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Four
29. In the Fourth Judges Case (2015), the Supreme Court invalidated the NJAC, holding that judicial independence forms part of the Constitution’s:
A) Preamble
B) Basic structure
C) Directive Principles
D) Ninth Schedule
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Basic structure
30.Pingali Venkayya, who designed the original concept of the Indian National Flag, was popularly known as:
A) Bharat Venkayya
B) Jhanda Venkayya
C) Tiranga Venkayya
D) Swaraj Venkayya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jhanda Venkayya
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