Find the current affairs quiz 27 June 2026 by Exam Charcha.
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Current Affairs Quiz – 27 June 2026 (Test Now)
1. A ‘Seismic Doublet’ is correctly defined as:
A) A mainshock followed by a single large aftershock of similar magnitude
B) Two independent earthquakes of nearly equal magnitude occurring within a short
time and in close proximity
C) Two earthquakes occurring simultaneously on the same fault
D) A deep-focus earthquake triggering a secondary surface earthquake
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) Two independent earthquakes of nearly equal magnitudeoccurring within a short time and in close proximity
2. Venezuela is highly earthquake-prone due to its position along the boundary between the Caribbean Plate and the:
A) Cocos Plate
B) Nazca Plate
C) South American Plate
D) North American Plate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) South American Plate
3. The type of faulting primarily responsible for Venezuela’s frequent shallow, high-intensity earthquakes is:
A) Normal faulting
B) Reverse faulting
C) Thrust faulting
D) Strike-slip faulting
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Strike-slip faulting
4. The Government of India observed 25 June as ‘Samvidhan Hatya Diwas’ to mark the anniversary of the 1975 Emergency. The Emergency was proclaimed by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed under:
A) Article 356
B) Article 352
C) Article 360
D) Article 358
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 352
5. The Allahabad High Court judgment that preceded the 1975 Emergency pertained to which case?
A) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
B) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
6. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 made the President’s proclamation of Emergency:
A) Compulsory within 24 hours of cabinet advice
B) Subject to mandatory parliamentary review within one month
C) Beyond judicial review
D) Conditional on Rajya Sabha concurrence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Beyond judicial review
7. The 39th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 excluded from judicial scrutiny the election of all EXCEPT:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chief Justice of India
8. The ADM Jabalpur (Habeas Corpus) Case, 1976 is significant because the Supreme Court ruled that:
A) All Fundamental Rights are non-suspendable during Emergency
B) Even the right to life under Article 21 could be suspended during Emergency, enabling detention without judicial remedy
C) Emergency proclamations require a two-thirds majority in both Houses
D) The President must take Cabinet advice before suspending any Fundamental Right
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Even the right to life under Article 21 could be suspended during Emergency, enabling detention without judicial remedy
9. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 introduced Fundamental Duties and also added which words to the Preamble?
A) ‘Democratic’ and ‘Republic’
B) ‘Sovereign’ and ‘Secular’
C) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’
D) ‘Fraternity’ and ‘Federal’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’
10.The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 replaced ‘internal disturbance’ as a ground for Emergency with:
A) Civil war
B) Armed rebellion
C) External aggression
D) Breakdown of constitutional machinery
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Armed rebellion
11. Under the 44th Amendment, which two Fundamental Rights CANNOT be suspended during a National Emergency?
A) Articles 14 and 19
B) Articles 19 and 21
C) Articles 20 and 21
D) Articles 21 and 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Articles 20 and 21
12. Under Article 358 as amended by the 44th Amendment, automatic suspension of Article 19 rights is permitted ONLY during an Emergency declared due to:
A) Armed rebellion or internal disturbance
B) War or external aggression
C) Any of the three grounds under Article 352
D) Presidential proclamation citing domestic civil disorder
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) War or external aggression
13. The Draft National Food Security (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposes to replace the existing household-based Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) entitlement with:
A) 5 kg per person per month with no household ceiling
B) 7 kg per person per month, subject to a maximum of 35 kg per household
C) 10 kg per household per month regardless of family size
D) 35 kg per household per month irrespective of family size (status quo)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 7 kg per person per month, subject to a maximum of 35 kg per household
14. Under the existing NFSA, 2013, Priority Household (PHH) beneficiaries are entitled to foodgrains at which rates?
A) Rice ₹2/kg, Wheat ₹1/kg, Coarse grains ₹1/kg
B) Rice ₹3/kg, Wheat ₹2/kg, Coarse grains ₹1/kg
C) Rice ₹5/kg, Wheat ₹4/kg, Coarse grains ₹3/kg
D) Free of cost under PM-GKAY extension
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rice ₹3/kg, Wheat ₹2/kg, Coarse grains ₹1/kg
15. The NFSA, 2013 covers what percentage of India’s rural and urban populations respectively?
A) 50% rural and 75% urban
B) 67% rural and 50% urban
C) 75% rural and 50% urban
D) 80% rural and 60% urban
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 75% rural and 50% urban
16. The Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism in India is administered by:
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
C) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
D) Central Pollution Control Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
17. The international agreement that operationalised the ABS framework by establishing global rules for access to genetic resources was the:
A) Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992
B) Cartagena Protocol, 2000
C) Nagoya Protocol, 2010
D) Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nagoya Protocol, 2010
18. Under the Biological Diversity Rules 2024, the NBA must transfer what percentage of ABS proceeds to State Biodiversity Boards for distribution to local communities?
A) 50–60%
B) 70–75%
C) 80–84%
D) 85–90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 85–90%
19. Which biological resource contributes 45% of India’s total ABS collections?
A) Neem
B) Turmeric
C) Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus)
D) Sandal Wood
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus)
20. Which of the following is explicitly EXCLUDED from India’s ABS framework under the Biological Diversity Act?
A) Plant genetic resources
B) Microbial genetic resources
C) Human genetic material
D) Animal genetic resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Human genetic material
21. The UN Independent International Scientific Panel on AI was established by the UN General Assembly to implement commitments under:
A) The Bletchley Declaration, 2023
B) The AI Safety Summit Agreement, 2024
C) The Global Digital Compact, 2024
D) The UN AI Governance Framework, 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The Global Digital Compact, 2024
22. India’s AI Governance Guidelines (November 2025) are structured around ‘Seven Sutras’. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) Ethical and trustworthy AI
B) Privacy and data protection
C) Mandatory algorithmic audits
D) Human-centric governance
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Mandatory algorithmic audits
23. ‘Regulatory Arbitrage’ in the context of AI governance refers to:
A) Countries bidding against each other to attract AI companies with tax benefits
B) AI developers relocating to jurisdictions with weaker regulations, concentrating
advanced AI in fewer countries
C) Governments adopting each other’s AI regulations without local customisation
D) International courts arbitrating disputes between AI companies and governments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AI developers relocating to jurisdictions with weaker regulations, concentrating advanced AI in fewer countries
24. IMD’s Long Period Average (LPA) for the Southwest Monsoon is currently:
A) 779.5 mm (based on 1951–2000 average)
B) 868.6 mm (based on 1971–2020 average)
C) 920.3 mm (based on 1981–2010 average)
D) 835.4 mm (based on 1961–2010 average)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 868.6 mm (based on 1971–2020 average)
25. The Madden–Julian Oscillation (MJO) influences the Indian Monsoon primarily by affecting:
A) Sea-surface temperatures in the Bay of Bengal
B) Cloud formation, atmospheric convection, and active/break phases of the monsoon
C) The strength of the Himalayan cold air barrier
D) Wind direction over the Arabian Sea during June–September
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cloud formation, atmospheric convection, and active/break phases of the monsoon
26. Food constitutes approximately what percentage of India’s Consumer Price Index (CPI), making monsoon deficits a significant driver of food inflation?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 40%
27. The Caspian Sea is classified as an ‘endorheic’ water body, which means:
A) Its water level fluctuates in a 10-year cycle
B) It has no natural outlet to the oceans
C) It is fed entirely by underground aquifers
D) Its salinity equals that of the open ocean
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It has no natural outlet to the oceans
28. Approximately what percentage of the Caspian Sea’s freshwater inflow comes from the Volga River?
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 80%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80%
29. The Aktau Convention (2018), which governs the legal status of the Caspian Sea, prohibits the presence of:
A) Commercial fishing vessels from non-littoral states
B) Military forces from non-littoral states
C) Oil exploration rigs beyond 12 nautical miles
D) Cargo ships not registered in littoral states
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Military forces from non-littoral states
30. The Caspian Sea serves as a vital link in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) connecting Mumbai to Moscow through which Iranian port?
A) Bandar Abbas
B) Chabahar
C) Bandar-e Anzali
D) Bushehr
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bandar-e Anzali
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