Find the current affairs quiz 20 June 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 20 June 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 20 June 2026 (Test Now)
1. The Central Government’s power to block public access to online information is granted under which Section of the IT Act, 2000?
A) Section 66A
B) Section 69A
C) Section 79
D) Section 87
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 69A
2. Under emergency blocking provisions, immediate blocking orders without a prior hearing can be directed by:
A) The Prime Minister’s Office
B) The Secretary, MeitY
C) The Cabinet Committee on Security
D) A District Magistrate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Secretary, MeitY
3. The Sahyog Portal, used for digital content-removal requests, was developed by which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Home Affairs
4. ‘Safe Harbour’ protection for intermediaries is provided under which Section of the IT Act?
A) Section 66
B) Section 69
C) Section 79
D) Section 84
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 79
5. Under Section 79(3)(b), platforms are generally required to act on a lawful takedown notice within:
A) 24 hours
B) 36 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 36 hours
6. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down which provision of the IT Act as unconstitutional?
A) Section 69A
B) Section 66A
C) Section 79
D) Section 43A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 66A
7. The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 was given assent by President:
A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C) Dr. Zakir Husain
D) V.V. Giri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
8. . Which Article was amended by the First Amendment to add ‘public order’ and ‘friendly relations with foreign States’ as grounds for restricting free speech?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(2)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 19(2)
9. The First Amendment inserted Article 15(4) to provide constitutional backing for:
A) Right to Education
B) Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes, SCs and STs
C) Abolition of untouchability
D) Protection of minority language rights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes, SCs and STs
10. Which Articles, inserted by the First Amendment, protected land reform legislation from challenges under Fundamental Rights?
A) Articles 29 and 30
B) Articles 31A and 31B
C) Articles 32 and 33
D) Articles 39A and 39B
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Articles 31A and 31B
11. The Ninth Schedule, created by the First Constitutional Amendment, was originally intended to:
A) List languages recognised under the Constitution
B) Protect socio-economic reform laws, particularly land reforms, from judicial review
C) Enumerate Union and State subjects
D) Define emergency powers of the President
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Protect socio-economic reform laws, particularly land reforms, from judicial review
12. Which landmark case held that Ninth Schedule laws enacted after 24 April 1973 are subject to judicial review if they violate the Basic Structure?
A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
13. The Basic Structure Doctrine, which limits Parliament’s amending power, was established in which case?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
14. The amendment to Article 19(6) made by the First Amendment primarily facilitated:
A) Reservation in private educational institutions
B) State monopolies and nationalisation measures in trade and business
C) Restrictions on freedom of assembly
D) Press censorship during emergencies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State monopolies and nationalisation measures in trade and business
15. The Bonn Climate Change Conference (SB64) serves as a preparatory platform ahead of the annual:
A) G20 Summit
B) Conference of Parties (COP)
C) World Economic Forum
D) UN General Assembly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Conference of Parties (COP)
16. The UNFCCC, the foundational treaty governing global climate action, was adopted during the Rio Earth Summit in:
A) 1987
B) 1992
C) 1997
D) 2002
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1992
17. At SB64, the COP31 Presidency of which country unveiled a new climate action agenda with targets extending to 2035?
A) Brazil
B) Azerbaijan
C) Türkiye
D) United Arab Emirates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Türkiye
18. As per the ‘Indicators of Global Climate Change 2025’ report, which indicator was identified as the fastest-worsening, recording a 61% increase?
A) Sea-level rise
B) Arctic ice melt
C) Marine heatwaves
D) Ocean acidification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Marine heatwaves
19. As per NISE’s nationwide assessment, India’s reservoirs possess the potential to support approximately how much floating solar power capacity?
A) 75.4 GW
B) 88.6 GW
C) 102.18 GW
D) 120.5 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 102.18 GW
20. The National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) functions under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Power
B) Ministry of Science and Technology
C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
✔ Answer: C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
21. India’s largest floating solar project, located in Madhya Pradesh with a 600 MW capacity, is the:
A) Ramagundam Floating Solar Plant
B) Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project
C) Kayamkulam Floating Solar Plant
D) Rajghat Floating Solar Project
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project
22. India’s first large-scale operational floating solar project, located in Telangana, is the:
A) Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project
B) Ramagundam Floating Solar Plant
C) Neyveli Floating Solar Project
D) Kawas Floating Solar Plant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ramagundam Floating Solar Plant
23. Helium-3, unlike the more common Helium-4, contains:
A) 2 protons and 2 neutrons
B) 1 proton and 2 neutrons
C) 2 protons and 1 neutron
D) 1 proton and 1 neutron
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2 protons and 1 neutron
24. On the Moon, Helium-3 has accumulated in the lunar regolith primarily due to:
A) Volcanic outgassing from the lunar mantle
B) Implantation of solar wind particles over billions of years
C) Meteorite impacts depositing helium-rich material
D) Radioactive decay of lunar minerals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Implantation of solar wind particles over billions of years
25. Helium-3 is considered a promising future fuel for which energy technology, owing to producing fewer radioactive by-products?
A) Nuclear fission reactors
B) Nuclear fusion reactors
C) Hydrogen fuel cells
D) Solid-state batteries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nuclear fusion reactors
26. In the QS World University Rankings 2027, which university retained the top global position for the 15th consecutive year?
A) Stanford University
B) Imperial College London
C) Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
D) University of Oxford
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
27. India’s highest-ranked institution in QS World University Rankings 2027, improving to 118th position, was:
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Delhi
C) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
D) IIT Madras
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) IIT Delhi
28. India’s representation in QS rankings increased by what percentage over the last decade, the fastest growth rate among G20 nations?
A) 150%
B) 200%
C) 271%
D) 320%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 271%
29. RELOS, India’s reciprocal defence logistics agreement operationalised with Russia, was originally signed in:
A) December 2024
B) February 2025
C) June 2025
D) October 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) February 2025
30. The Kazan Declaration 2026, adopted by ASEAN and Russia, commemorates how many years of ASEAN–Russia relations?
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 40 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 35 years
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