Find the current affairs quiz 12 June 2026 by Exam Charcha.
Staying updated with current events is crucial, and this quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the latest happenings. The 12 June 2026 current affairs quiz covers the key events, news, and developments from this day.
Each question comes with multiple choices, and the correct answer is provided to help you learn. Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz is a great way to assess your awareness of current affairs.
Current Affairs Quiz – 12 June 2026 (Test Now)
1. Birsa Munda is revered as ‘Dharti Aaba’, meaning:
A) Son of the Soil
B) Father of the Earth
C) Protector of the Forest
D) Leader of the Tribes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Father of the Earth
2. Birsa Munda founded which monotheistic faith combining elements of Munda traditions, Hinduism, and Christianity?
A) Sarna Dharma
B) Birsait Faith
C) Tana Bhagat Movement
D) Kherwal Dharma
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Birsait Faith
3. The Ulgulan, led by Birsa Munda, took place during:
A) 1885–1886
B) 1895–1896
C) 1899–1900
D) 1905–1906
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1899–1900
4. Birsa Munda’s movement sought to establish ‘Abua Raj’, meaning:
A) Tribal Council
B) Self-Rule
C) Land Reform
D) Religious Freedom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Self-Rule
5. The Ulgulan uprising compelled the British to enact which legislation in 1908?
A) Bengal Tenancy Act
B) Chotanagpur Tenancy Act
C) Forest Rights Act
D) Indian Land Revenue Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chotanagpur Tenancy Act
6. The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 recognised which system of ancestral land rights for original tribal settlers?
A) Zamindari System
B) Khuntkatti System
C) Ryotwari System
D) Mahalwari System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Khuntkatti System
7. Birsa Munda’s birth anniversary, observed as Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas, falls on:
A) 9 August
B) 15 November
C) 26 January
D) 2 October
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15 November
8. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 is issued and administered by:
A) Ministry of Law and Justice
B) Election Commission of India
C) Parliament of India
D) Supreme Court of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Election Commission of India
9. As per the latest revision (May 2025), how many symbols are included in the ECI’s Free Symbols List?
A) 156
B) 169
C) 184
D) 198
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 184
10. Which political party continues to use the elephant symbol due to a grandfathering provision despite the ECI’s ban on new animal symbols?
A) Indian National Congress
B) Bahujan Samaj Party
C) Samajwadi Party
D) Telugu Desam Party
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bahujan Samaj Party
11. Two recognised parties from different states may legally possess the same election symbol if:
A) They belong to the same political alliance
B) They are unlikely to contest against one another
C) Both were registered in the same year
D) The ECI grants special joint permission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) They are unlikely to contest against one another
12. Unrecognised parties and independent candidates contesting elections must choose their symbol from:
A) Reserved Symbols List
B) National Symbols Register
C) Free Symbols List
D) State Symbols Directory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Free Symbols List
13. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment shifted ‘Education’ from the State List to which Entry of the Concurrent List?
A) Entry 11
B) Entry 25
C) Entry 41
D) Entry 54
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Entry 25
14. Under Article 254, in case of inconsistency between Union and State law on a Concurrent List subject:
A) State law prevails automatically
B) Union law prevails over State law
C) The matter is referred to the President for arbitration
D) Both laws operate simultaneously
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Union law prevails over State law
15. Under which Entry of the Union List does Parliament have exclusive authority over coordination and determination of standards in higher education?
A) Entry 63
B) Entry 64
C) Entry 65
D) Entry 66
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Entry 66
16. Under Entry 32 of the State List, State Governments have the power to:
A) Set national academic standards
B) Establish, regulate, and dissolve universities within their jurisdiction
C) Approve all central university appointments
D) Override UGC regulations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Establish, regulate, and dissolve universities within their jurisdiction
17. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was established under the UGC Act of:
A) 1950
B) 1956
C) 1961
D) 1972
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1956
18. Which Commission recommended increasing public expenditure on education to 6% of GDP?
A) Sarkaria Commission (1988)
B) Kothari Commission (1966)
C) Punchhi Commission (2010)
D) National Knowledge Commission (2007)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kothari Commission (1966)
19. The Yashpal Committee (2009) recommended creating which body to replace multiple regulators in higher education?
A) Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education (IRAHE)
B) National Commission for Higher Education and Research (NCHER)
C) National Education Council (NEC)
D) Higher Education Standards Authority (HESA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Commission for Higher Education and Research (NCHER)
20. The Punchhi Commission (2010) recommended that university Chancellors should be:
A) Retained as the Governor with enhanced powers
B) Appointed by the UGC directly
C) Eminent academicians instead of the Governor
D) Elected by university faculty members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Eminent academicians instead of the Governor
21. The proposed Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 primarily seeks to:
A) Increase state autonomy in curriculum design
B) Overhaul the existing higher education regulatory structure
C) Abolish the UGC entirely without replacement
D) Transfer all education subjects fully to the State List
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Overhaul the existing higher education regulatory structure
22. India’s public expenditure on higher education remains around what percentage of GDP?
A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 3%
D) 6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1%
23. India’s diaspora remitted a record amount in FY 2025–26, which stood at approximately:
A) $87.55 billion
B) $98.30 billion
C) $110.47 billion
D) $125.60 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $110.47 billion
24. Remittances reached a 13-year high in Q4 FY26, amounting to approximately:
A) $25.40 billion
B) $28.90 billion
C) $31.07 billion
D) $35.20 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $31.07 billion
25. Compared to External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), remittances are considered advantageous because they:
A) Generate higher returns for investors
B) Create no future repayment obligations
C) Are taxed at lower rates
D) Are guaranteed by the RBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Create no future repayment obligations
26. The Assam Blue Valley Cluster, launched in Guwahati, is a collaborative initiative between Assam and:
A) ASEAN
B) The European Union
C) The United States
D) Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The European Union
27. ‘Bioeconomy’, as referenced in the Assam Blue Valley Cluster initiative, primarily refers to economic activities based on:
A) Digital and IT services
B) Renewable biological resources such as plants, animals, and biomass
C) Mineral and fossil fuel extraction
D) Financial services and banking
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Renewable biological resources such as plants, animals, and biomass
28. SAPLING Dialogue 2026, concluded in Ahmedabad, was jointly organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and:
A) World Health Organization
B) Food and Agriculture Organization
C) World Bank Group
D) Asian Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) World Bank Group
29. According to India’s Food Processing Report discussed at SAPLING 2026, the share of food processing in agriculture increased from 10% (2016) to nearly what level by 2023?
A) 13%
B) 17%
C) 23%
D) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 17%
30. The Made-in-India C-295 military transport aircraft, which completed its maiden flight, is manufactured jointly by Airbus and:
A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
B) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
C) Bharat Electronics Limited
D) Larsen & Toubro Defence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
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