Practice the June 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the first week of June 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 June features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
1st Week of June 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. The DST report on quantum-safe digital ecosystem recommends that Critical Information Infrastructure must complete migration to Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) by which year?
A) 2027
B) 2029
C) 2031
D) 2033
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 2029
2. What is ‘Q-Day’ in the context of quantum computing?
A) The date India launches its first quantum computer
B) The hypothetical future point when quantum computers become powerful enough to break existing public-key cryptographic systems
C) The deadline for migrating to quantum-safe systems
D) The day quantum encryption becomes commercially available
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) The hypothetical future point when quantum computers become powerful enough to break existing public-key cryptographic systems
3. Shor’s Algorithm, which poses a threat to existing cryptography, was developed by:
A) Richard Feynman
B) David Deutsch
C) Peter Shor
D) Lov Grover
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Peter Shor
4. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) is best described as:
A) A hardware-based system using quantum states of photons
B) A software-based cryptographic framework designed to remain secure against both classical and quantum computer attacks
C) A satellite-linked encryption system for government use only
D) A real-time key exchange system using quantum entanglement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A software-based cryptographic framework designed to remain secure against both classical and quantum computer attacks
5. Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) uses which physical principle to secure key transmission?
A) Quantum entanglement of electrons
B) Quantum states of photons
C) Superconducting qubit oscillations
D) Radioactive decay randomness
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Quantum states of photons
6. A key limitation of Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is:
A) It cannot be used for government applications
B) It is vulnerable to Shor’s Algorithm
C) High deployment cost and distance constraints on signal transmission
D) It requires software upgrades every 3 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) High deployment cost and distance constraints on signal transmission
7. The study identifying subsurface ice near Moon’s South Pole was conducted using data from which instrument?
A) MIPS onboard Chandrayaan-3
B) Dual Frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar (DFSAR) onboard Chandrayaan-2
C) CLASS instrument onboard Chandrayaan-2
D) ChaSTE onboard Chandrayaan-3
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Dual Frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar (DFSAR) onboard Chandrayaan-2
8. The key study site for the subsurface lunar ice research was which crater?
A) Shackleton Crater
B) Haworth Crater
C) Faustini Crater
D) Nobile Crater
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Faustini Crater
9. Which two radar parameters were identified as diagnostic indicators of subsurface water ice on the Moon?
A) Albedo Ratio and Surface Roughness Index
B) Circular Polarization Ratio (CPR) and Degree of Polarization (DOP)
C) Radar Backscatter Coefficient and Thermal Inertia
D) Signal-to-Noise Ratio and Doppler Shift
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Circular Polarization Ratio (CPR) and Degree of Polarization (DOP)
10. What does ‘Lobate-rim morphology’ observed around the Faustini crater impact feature suggest?
A) Evidence of recent volcanic activity
B) The impacting object penetrated an underlying ice-rich layer, exposing signatures of buried ice deposits
C) A meteorite impact that vaporised water from the surface
D) Evidence of lava tube formations beneath the crater
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) The impacting object penetrated an underlying ice-rich layer, exposing signatures of buried ice deposits
11. India and Singapore elevated their bilateral relationship to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP) during PM Modi’s visit in which year?
A) 2022
B) 2023
C) 2024
D) 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2024
12. Singapore accounts for approximately what percentage of cumulative FDI inflows into India?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) 25%
13. Singapore is India’s largest trading partner within which regional grouping?
A) SAARC
B) BIMSTEC
C) ASEAN
D) SCO
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ASEAN
14. Singapore is the only foreign country permitted to do what in India under the bilateral military cooperation arrangement?
A) Deploy warships in Indian territorial waters
B) Station military assets in India
C) Conduct joint air patrols over Indian airspace
D) Operate military training academies in India
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Station military assets in India
15. Which of the following is NOT a major India–Singapore bilateral military exercise?
A) SIMBEX
B) Agni Warrior
C) Bold Kurukshetra
D) Yudh Abhyas
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) Yudh Abhyas
16. As per the WMO Report (2026–2030), Arctic winter temperatures are expected to increase how many times faster than the global average?
A) 2 times
B) 2.5 times
C) 3.5 times
D) 4.5 times
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 3.5 times
17. According to the WMO Report, what is the probability that at least one year during 2026–2030 will temporarily exceed 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels?
A) 65%
B) 78%
C) 85%
D) 91%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) 91%
18. The WMO Report projects global annual near-surface temperatures during 2026–2030 will remain how much above pre-industrial levels?
A) 0.8°C–1.2°C
B) 1.0°C–1.5°C
C) 1.3°C–1.9°C
D) 1.5°C–2.1°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 1.3°C–1.9°C
19. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) was established in which year and where is it headquartered?
A) 1945; New York
B) 1948; Paris
C) 1950; Geneva
D) 1955; Vienna
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 1950; Geneva
20. The Quad’s Ports of the Future Partnership first joint infrastructure initiative is located in which country?
A) Papua New Guinea
B) Fiji
C) Vanuatu
D) Tonga
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Fiji
21. Fiji is located approximately 2,100 km north of which country?
A) Australia
B) New Zealand
C) Papua New Guinea
D) Indonesia
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) New Zealand
22. Fiji is known by which title related to its marine biodiversity?
A) Pearl of the Pacific
B) Blue Heart of the Pacific
C) Soft Coral Capital of the World
D) Coral Triangle Hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Soft Coral Capital of the World
23. Tripura’s Queen Pineapple received its Geographical Indication (GI) tag in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2015
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) 2015
24. The scientific name of the Queen Pineapple is:
A) Mangifera indica
B) Ananas comosus
C) Carica papaya
D) Litchi chinensis
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Ananas comosus
25. Mission Queen Pineapple is implemented for which period?
A) FY 2025–FY 2027
B) FY 2026–FY 2028
C) FY 2026–FY 2030
D) FY 2027–FY 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) FY 2026–FY 2028
26. Which digital payment integration between India and Singapore enables cross-border real-time payments?
A) RuPay and MasterCard
B) IMPS and FAST
C) UPI and PayNow
D) NEFT and GIRO
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) UPI and PayNow
27. The National Centre of Excellence for Skilling in Advanced Manufacturing under the India–Singapore skill development partnership is to be established in which city?
A) Mumbai
B) Bengaluru
C) Hyderabad
D) Chennai
Show Answer
Correct Answerr: D) Chennai
28. Tamil is one of Singapore’s four official languages. Which of the following is NOT one of the four?
A) English
B) Mandarin
C) Hindi
D) Malay
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Hindi
29. The India–Singapore Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD) held recently was which edition?
A) 12th
B) 14th
C) 16th
D) 18th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 16th
30. The Chandrayaan-2 mission was launched by ISRO in which month and year?
A) September 2018
B) July 2019
C) November 2019
D) January 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) July 2019
31. NFHS-6 was conducted during which period?
A. 2020–21
B. 2021–22
C. 2022–23
D. 2023–24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2023–24
32. Which institution serves as the nodal implementing agency for the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)?
A. NITI Aayog
B. ICMR
C. International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai
D. Registrar General of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai
33. Approximately how many households were covered under NFHS-6?
A. 4.79 lakh
B. 5.89 lakh
C. 6.79 lakh
D. 7.79 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6.79 lakh
34. What was the percentage of institutional deliveries reported in NFHS-6?
A. 82.6%
B. 85.4%
C. 88.2%
D. 90.6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 90.6%
35. What was the full immunisation coverage among children aged 12–23 months according to NFHS-6?
A. 79.1%
B. 82.5%
C. 87.1%
D. 91.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 87.1%
36. Which country recently overtook India to become the world’s fifth-largest equity market?
A. South Korea
B. Taiwan
C. Germany
D. Singapore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Taiwan
37. Which company has been the primary contributor to Taiwan’s stock market growth?
A. Samsung Electronics
B. Foxconn
C. TSMC
D. Intel
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) TSMC
38. TSMC is globally known for being the world’s leading:
A. Smartphone manufacturer
B. Contract semiconductor manufacturer
C. AI software developer
D. Cloud service provider
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Contract semiconductor manufacturer
39. India currently ranks as the __ largest equity market in the world.
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Seventh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sixth
40. The Logistics Port Performance Index (LPPI) was launched by which ministry?
A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
C. Ministry of Heavy Industries
D. Ministry of Railways
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
41. LPPI has been developed under which framework?
A. Sagarmala
B. Maritime India Vision 2030
C. Sagar Aankalan
D. PM Gati Shakti
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sagar Aankalan
42. Which port topped the Dry Bulk Cargo category in LPPI 2024–25?
A. Deendayal Port
B. Mundra Port
C. Paradip Port Authority
D. Chennai Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Paradip Port Authority
43. Which port emerged as the top performer in the Container Cargo category under LPPI 2024–25?
A. Kochi Port
B. JNPA
C. Paradip Port
D. Mundra Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Mundra Port
44. The e-Navik module is associated with:
A. Vessel registration
B. Seafarer grievance redressal
C. Port security
D. Cargo tracking
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Seafarer grievance redressal
55. Which digital initiative has been introduced to streamline vessel registration?
A. e-Samudra
B. e-Navik
C. Sagar Setu
D. e-Maritime
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) e-Samudra
46. NITI Aayog’s semiconductor roadmap aims to create a semiconductor value chain worth:
A. USD 50–75 billion
B. USD 80–100 billion
C. USD 120–150 billion
D. USD 200–250 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 120–150 billion
47. By 2035, India aims to capture what percentage of the global semiconductor market?
A. 5–8%
B. 8–10%
C. 10–13%
D. 15–18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10–13%
48. Which proposed institution will support semiconductor design, prototyping and innovation?
A. National Fab Academy
B. National Design Hub
C. Semiconductor Technology Institute
D. Bharat Chip Centre
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Design Hub
49. Gallium Nitride (GaN) and Silicon Carbide (SiC) are examples of:
A. Quantum chips
B. Memory chips
C. Compound semiconductors
D. Nano-sensors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Compound semiconductors
50. India currently imports approximately what percentage of its semiconductor requirements?
A. 75%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 95%
51. SkyCast was inaugurated at which airport?
A. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport
B. Kempegowda International Airport
C. Indira Gandhi International Airport
D. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indira Gandhi International Airport
52. Sky Cast was launched under which programme?
A. Mission Amrit Sarovar
B. Mission Mausam
C. Mission Shakti
D. Mission Vayu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mission Mausam
53. Which instrument in SkyCast uses laser technology to determine cloud-base height?
A. SODAR
B. Microwave Radiometer
C. Radar Wind Profiler
D. Lidar Ceilometer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Lidar Ceilometer
54. GFAS, used in SkyCast, stands for:
A. Ground Fog Analysis System
B. Ground-Based Fog Aerosol Spectrometer
C. Global Fog Assessment Service
D. Ground Forecasting Aerosol System
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ground-Based Fog Aerosol Spectrometer
55. SkyCast has been developed using insights from which scientific programme?
A. Monsoon Mission
B. National Climate Programme
C. Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX)
D. Aerosol Research Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX)
56. Sanchi Stupa is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A. Vidisha
B. Raisen
C. Sehore
D. Dhar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Raisen
57. Sanchi was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in:
A. 1985
B. 1987
C. 1989
D. 1991
Show Answer
Correct Answerr: C) 1989
58. The original Great Stupa at Sanchi was commissioned by:
A. Kanishka
B. Ashoka
C. Pushyamitra Shunga
D. Samudragupta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ashoka
59. South Coast Railway (SCoR) has become India’s __ operational railway zone.
A. 16th
B. 17th
C. 18th
D. 19th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 18th
60. The headquarters of South Coast Railway (SCoR) is located at:
A. Vijayawada
B. Tirupati
C. Secunderabad
D. Visakhapatnam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Visakhapatnam
61. In the case Association for Democratic Reforms v. Election Commission of India, the Supreme Court upheld the ECI’s power to conduct:
A) General Elections
B) Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls
C) Delimitation of constituencies
D) Appointment of election officers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls
62. The constitutional authority of the Election Commission of India to conduct elections flows primarily from:
A) Article 356
B) Article 368
C) Article 324
D) Article 226
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
63. Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 prohibits non-citizens from being enrolled as voters?
A) Section 10
B) Section 14
C) Section 16
D) Section 20
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 16
64. According to the Supreme Court ruling, when citizenship status of a voter remains doubtful, the matter must be referred to:
A) The State Government
B) The Election Commission itself
C) The Supreme Court
D) The Central Government under the Citizenship Act, 1955
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) The Central Government under the Citizenship Act, 1955
65. Removal of a person’s name from the electoral roll, as clarified by the Supreme Court, amounts to:
A) Automatic deprivation of citizenship
B) Formal determination of non-citizenship
C) Neither deprivation of citizenship nor formal determination of nationality
D) Imprisonment under the Citizenship Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Neither deprivation of citizenship nor formal determination of nationality
66. Under the Supreme Court’s directions regarding doubtful citizenship cases, such matters should be resolved:
A) Within 30 days
B) Within a reasonable timeframe, preferably before the next election
C) Only after the election is conducted
D) Within 6 months under all circumstances
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Within a reasonable timeframe, preferably before the next election
67. The statutory framework for preparation, revision, and maintenance of electoral rolls is provided by:
A) The Citizenship Act, 1955
B) The Representation of the People Act, 1950
C) The Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act
D) The Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Representation of the People Act, 1950
68. The India–Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in:
A) January 2025
B) March 2025
C) December 2025
D) June 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) December 2025
69. India is the __ country to secure a comprehensive economic pact with Oman.
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Second
70. Under the India–Oman CEPA, what percentage of Indian exports by value receive immediate duty-free market access in Oman?
A) 85%
B) 90%
C) 95%
D) 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 99%
71. How many services sub-sectors has Oman opened to Indian service providers under the CEPA?
A) 85
B) 100
C) 127
D) 150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 127
72. India has liberalised _% of tariff lines covering approximately 94% of imports from Oman.
A) 60%
B) 70%
C) 77%
D) 88%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 77%
73. Under the CEPA, Indian generic medicines approved by recognised international regulatory agencies will receive approval in Oman within:
A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 90 days
74. Oman has become the first country to incorporate which of the following within a trade framework with India?
A) Digital trade provisions
B) AYUSH cooperation
C) Space economy cooperation
D) Defence manufacturing clauses
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AYUSH cooperation
75. Under the India–Oman CEPA, intra-corporate transferee quotas have been increased from 20% to:
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
76. Oman’s position in India’s trade landscape is as India’s __ largest trading partner in the Gulf region.
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Second
77. Which organisation is set to issue India’s first Blue Bond?
A) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
B) India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL)
C) Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SFCL)
D) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SFCL)
78. Blue Bonds are a subset of which category of bonds?
A) Infrastructure bonds
B) Green and sustainable bonds
C) Municipal bonds
D) Sovereign gold bonds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Green and sustainable bonds
79. The world’s first sovereign Blue Bond was launched in 2018 by:
A) Maldives
B) Norway
C) Seychelles
D) Indonesia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Seychelles
80. Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SFCL) was established under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Environment
C) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
D) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
81. Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SFCL) holds the distinction of being India’s first:
A) Green bond issuer
B) Maritime sector-focused NBFC
C) Sovereign wealth fund
D) Port development authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Maritime sector-focused NBFC
82. The Shangri-La Dialogue is organised by which institution?
A) ASEAN Secretariat
B) United Nations Office for Disarmament Affairs
C) International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS)
D) Observer Research Foundation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS)
83. The Shangri-La Dialogue was first convened in the year:
A) 1998
B) 2000
C) 2002
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2002
84. At the Shangri-La Dialogue 2026, the United States described India as a __ for maintaining the balance of power in the Indo-Pacific.
A) Strategic partner
B) Critical anchor
C) Regional power
D) Balancing force
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Critical anchor
85. The Raisina Dialogue, India’s flagship strategic conference, is organised by the Observer Research Foundation along with:
A) Ministry of Defence
B) Ministry of External Affairs
C) NITI Aayog
D) Ministry of Commerce
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of External Affairs
86. Verily’s Debug Project aims to suppress populations of which mosquito species?
A) Aedes aegypti
B) Anopheles gambiae
C) Culex quinquefasciatus
D) Aedes albopictus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Culex quinquefasciatus
87. The Debug Project uses which biological method to suppress mosquito populations?
A) Genetic modification of mosquitoes
B) Release of male mosquitoes carrying Wolbachia bacteria
C) Mass spraying of chemical insecticides
D) Introduction of predatory fish in breeding habitats
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Release of male mosquitoes carrying Wolbachia bacteria
88. Wolbachia is best described as:
A) A fungicide used in agriculture
B) A naturally occurring intracellular bacterium found in arthropods
C) A synthetic gene-editing tool
D) A chemical pesticide derived from plants
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A naturally occurring intracellular bacterium found in arthropods
89. The Valley of Flowers is located in which district of Uttarakhand?
A) Pithoragarh
B) Rudraprayag
C) Chamoli
D) Tehri Garhwal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chamoli
90. The Valley of Flowers was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in:
A) 1982
B) 1992
C) 2000
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2005
91. The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 came into force on:
A) 1 January 2025
B) 1 April 2025
C) 1 September 2025
D) 1 October 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 September 2025
92. Under the revised Immigration and Foreigners Rules, 2025, foreign nationals intending to stay beyond 180 days must register:
A) Within 14 days after completing 180 days
B) Before the expiry of the initial 180-day period
C) Within 30 days of arrival
D) At any time before departure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Before the expiry of the initial 180-day period
93. Under the amended rules, if a child born in India to a foreign national subsequently acquires foreign citizenship, parents or guardians must inform the registration officer within:
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30 days
94. The birth reporting requirement for foreign nationals in India does NOT apply if:
A) The child is born in a government hospital
B) Either parent is an Indian citizen
C) The family has resided in India for more than 5 years
D) The foreign national holds a diplomatic visa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Either parent is an Indian citizen
95. The 2nd India–Australia Defence Ministers’ Dialogue was held in:
A) Canberra
B) Sydney
C) New Delhi
D) Mumbai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) New Delhi
96. The Quad Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Collaboration (IPMSC) was reaffirmed at the India–Australia Defence Ministers’ Dialogue. ‘Quad’ refers to the grouping of:
A) India, USA, Japan, South Korea
B) India, USA, Japan, Australia
C) India, USA, Australia, UK
D) India, Australia, France, Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) India, USA, Japan, Australia
97. India confirmed its first participation in which joint military operation during the India–Australia Defence Dialogue?
A) Operation Pacific Eagle
B) Operation Southern Cross
C) Operation Render Safe 2026
D) Operation Malabar 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Operation Render Safe 2026
98. The bilateral military exercise between India and Australia is called:
A) AUSTRA-HIND
B) AUSTRAHIND
C) INDOZ
D) PACIFIC SHIELD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AUSTRAHIND
99. The MAHA Water Mission was jointly launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and:
A) NITI Aayog
B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
C) Anusandhan National Research Foundation
D) Department of Science and Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Anusandhan National Research Foundation
100. MAHA Water Mission provides funding support of up to __ per project.
A) ₹5 crore
B) ₹10 crore
C) ₹15 crore
D) ₹20 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹20 crore
101. ‘MAHA’ in MAHA Water Mission stands for:
A) Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas
B) Mission for Advancement in Hydrology and Agriculture
C) Mission Augmenting Hydrology and Aquifer
D) Mission for Advancement in Hydrological Analysis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas
102. Which of the following is NOT one of the five priority themes of the MAHA Water Mission?
A) Water Resource Management
B) Drinking Water
C) Space-Based Water Mapping
D) Climate Resilience and Adaptation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Space-Based Water Mapping
103. MAHA is a flagship programme of which organisation?
A) Indian Space Research Organisation
B) Anusandhan National Research Foundation
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Department of Science and Technology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Anusandhan National Research Foundation
104. The chemical formula of isobutanol is:
A) C₂H₅OH
B) C₃H₇OH
C) C₄H₁₀O
D) C₅H₁₂O
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) C₄H₁₀O
105. India’s earlier trials with ethanol-diesel blending failed primarily because:
A) Ethanol was too expensive
B) Ethanol and diesel do not mix uniformly and tend to separate
C) Ethanol increased engine power excessively
D) There was insufficient ethanol production capacity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ethanol and diesel do not mix uniformly and tend to separate
106. According to ARAI trials, conventional diesel engines can safely accommodate isobutanol blending up to:
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10%
107. Isobutanol’s lower cetane number compared to diesel primarily causes:
A) Higher fuel efficiency
B) Delayed ignition and risk of diesel knocking
C) Reduced carbon emissions
D) Improved engine cooling
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Delayed ignition and risk of diesel knocking
108. Isobutanol has an advantage over ethanol due to its higher flash point, which means:
A) It evaporates more quickly
B) It requires a higher temperature for ignition, making it safer
C) It produces more energy per litre
D) It mixes better with water
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) It requires a higher temperature for ignition, making it safer
109. The new WPI series being introduced will update the base year from 2011–12 to:
A) 2017–18
B) 2019–20
C) 2021–22
D) 2022–23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2022–23
110. Under the revised WPI, the number of commodities in the basket will increase from 697 to:
A) 750
B) 800
C) 900
D) 957
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 957
111. The new WPI series will assign weights using Gross Value of Output (GVO), replacing the existing methodology of:
A) Consumer Price Index weights
B) Net Traded Value (NTV)
C) GDP deflator
D) Input-Output table weights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Net Traded Value (NTV)
112. Which of the following has been included in the Fuel and Power category of the new WPI for the first time?
A) Hydro electricity
B) Coal and lignite
C) Solar, wind, and nuclear energy
D) Natural gas and biogas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Solar, wind, and nuclear energy
113. The Producer Price Index (PPI) is designed in line with best practices of:
A) World Trade Organization
B) World Bank
C) International Monetary Fund
D) Asian Development Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) International Monetary Fund
114. The Service Producer Price Index (Service PPI) under the PPI framework is compiled:
A) Weekly
B) Monthly
C) Quarterly
D) Annually
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Quarterly
115. 5G network slicing relies on which two core technologies?
A) Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
B) Software-Defined Networking (SDN) and Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)
C) Satellite communication and Fibre optics
D) Edge computing and Blockchain
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Software-Defined Networking (SDN) and Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)
116. Which type of 5G network slice is specifically designed for remote surgery and autonomous vehicles due to its extremely low latency?
A) Enhanced Mobile Broadband (eMBB)
B) Massive Machine-Type Communication (mMTC)
C) Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communication (URLLC)
D) Fixed Wireless Access (FWA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communication (URLLC)
117. India’s net neutrality rules were formally adopted by the Department of Telecommunications in:
A) 2015
B) 2016
C) 2018
D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2018
118. The 4th Lavender Festival 2026 is being organised in:
A) Srinagar
B) Leh
C) Bhaderwah
D) Jammu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bhaderwah
119. The CSIR Aroma Mission was initiated in:
A) 2010
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2016
120. Muga silk received its Geographical Indication (GI) tag in:
A) 2000
B) 2004
C) 2007
D) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2007
121. Senior Advocate V. Mohana became the second woman to be directly elevated from the Bar to the Supreme Court. Who was the first?
A) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
B) Justice Indu Malhotra
C) Justice R. Banumathi
D) Justice Sujata Manohar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Justice Indu Malhotra
122. Justice M. Fathima Beevi is historically significant because she:
A) Was the first woman Chief Justice of India
B) Was the first woman to be elevated directly from the Bar to the Supreme Court
C) Was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India
D) Was the first woman to serve as Attorney General of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India
123. As of current data, approximately what percentage of all Supreme Court appointments since its establishment have been women?
A) 2.1%
B) 4.2%
C) 8.5%
D) 13%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 4.2%
124. Women’s representation in the district and subordinate judiciary in India currently ranges between:
A) 10–15%
B) 20–25%
C) 35–38%
D) 45–50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 35–38%
125. Under Article 233 of the Constitution, candidates from the Bar must have at least how many years of continuous legal practice to be eligible as District Judges?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 10 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7 years
126. Greater representation of women in the judiciary reinforces which constitutional provisions?
A) Articles 12 and 13
B) Articles 14 and 15
C) Articles 19 and 21
D) Articles 32 and 226
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Articles 14 and 15
127. India has __ women judges currently serving in the Supreme Court out of a sanctioned strength of 37 judges.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2
128. Which of the following correctly describes the ‘pipeline problem’ in women’s judicial representation?
A) Lack of water infrastructure in court complexes
B) Shortage of women designated as Senior Advocates reducing the pool for elevation
C) Absence of dedicated pipelines for women in district courts
D) Delay in processing applications of women lawyers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Shortage of women designated as Senior Advocates reducing the pool for elevation
129. The Prime Minister Research Chair (PMRC) Scheme 2026 was launched by which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of External Affairs
C) Ministry of Education
D) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Education
130. Which of the following is NOT among the designated Lead Institutions under the PMRC Scheme 2026?
A) IIT Delhi
B) IIT Bombay
C) IIT Roorkee
D) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) IIT Roorkee
131. The Empowered Committee overseeing the PMRC Scheme will be chaired by:
A) Cabinet Secretary
B) Secretary, Ministry of Education
C) Principal Scientific Adviser
D) Director General, CSIR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Principal Scientific Adviser
132. Which category of PMRC Fellows targets globally distinguished scientists and technology leaders for strategic leadership roles?
A) Young Research Fellows
B) Senior Research Fellows
C) Research Chairs
D) Innovation Fellows
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Research Chairs
133. The PMRC Scheme 2026 is open to which of the following?
A) Only Indian citizens residing in India
B) Indian citizens working abroad, OCI cardholders, and Persons of Indian Origin
C) Only foreign nationals with expertise in frontier technologies
D) Indian students enrolled in foreign universities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian citizens working abroad, OCI cardholders, and Persons of Indian Origin
134. The concept of ‘Reverse Brain Circulation’ as promoted by the PMRC Scheme refers to:
A) Sending Indian researchers abroad for training
B) Engaging Indian-origin researchers globally without requiring permanent relocation to India
C) Recruiting foreign researchers to work in Indian institutions
D) Establishing Indian research centres in foreign countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Engaging Indian-origin researchers globally without requiring permanent relocation to India
135. Which of the following is NOT listed as a focus sector under the PMRC Scheme 2026?
A) Quantum Computing
B) Blue Economy
C) Traditional Medicine (AYUSH)
D) Cybersecurity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Traditional Medicine (AYUSH)
136. The FSSAI standardised Vegan Logo will become mandatory on all certified vegan food products from:
A) 1 January 2026
B) 1 April 2027
C) 1 July 2027
D) 1 October 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 July 2027
137. The FSSAI Vegan Logo consists of:
A) A green leaf inside a brown circle
B) A stylised ‘V’ symbol enclosed within a green square frame
C) A green dot inside a green square
D) An organic plant symbol inside a white circle
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A stylised ‘V’ symbol enclosed within a green square frame
138. Which of the following FSSAI logos identifies certified organic food products?
A) Green dot inside a green square
B) Brown dot inside a brown square
C) Jaivik Bharat Logo
D) Blue Dot Logo
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Jaivik Bharat Logo
139. Under FSSAI norms, which of the following would NOT be permitted in a certified vegan food product?
A) Plant-based oils
B) Honey
C) Fruit extracts
D) Legume-based proteins
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Honey
140. The FSSAI Non-Vegetarian Logo is:
A) A red dot inside a red square
B) A brown dot inside a brown square
C) A black dot inside a grey square
D) A white dot inside a black square
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A brown dot inside a brown square
141. Beaufort Castle is locally known as:
A) Qal’at al-Hosn
B) Qal’at al-Shaqif
C) Qal’at al-Marqab
D) Qal’at Jaber
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Qal’at al-Shaqif
142. Beaufort Castle is situated near which river in southern Lebanon?
A) Jordan River
B) Orontes River
C) Litani River
D) Hasbani River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Litani River
143. The Litani River is significant because it is:
A) The longest river shared between Israel and Lebanon
B) The longest river flowing entirely within Lebanon
C) The only river in Lebanon that flows into the Dead Sea
D) A tributary of the Euphrates River
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The longest river flowing entirely within Lebanon
144. The Litani River originates in which valley?
A) Jordan Valley
B) Orontes Valley
C) Bekaa Valley
D) Jezreel Valley
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bekaa Valley
145. The Litani River empties into:
A) The Red Sea near Aqaba
B) The Mediterranean Sea near Tyre
C) The Dead Sea near Jericho
D) The Persian Gulf near Basra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Mediterranean Sea near Tyre
146. BALTOPS stands for:
A) Baltic Alliance Treaty Operations
B) Baltic Operations
C) Baltic–Atlantic Treaty Operations
D) Baltic Top Security
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Baltic Operations
147. BALTOPS is a multinational naval exercise led by:
A) NATO Headquarters
B) European Union Naval Force
C) The United States
D) Germany
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) The United States
148. BALTOPS has been conducted annually since which year?
A) 1949
B) 1960
C) 1971
D) 1991
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1971
149. BALTOPS 2026 is being conducted in the context of geopolitical tensions between NATO and:
A) China
B) Belarus
C) Russia
D) Iran
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Russia
150. The primary purpose of BALTOPS exercises is to:
A) Test new weapons systems developed by NATO members
B) Enhance interoperability among allied naval forces and strengthen collective maritime defence
C) Monitor civilian shipping in the Baltic Sea
D) Conduct underwater resource mapping in the Baltic region
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Enhance interoperability among allied naval forces and strengthen collective maritime defence
151. The Viksit Vibrant Village Programme (VVVP) 2026 was initiated by MY Bharat under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Rural Development
C) Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports
D) Ministry of Border Management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports
152. MY Bharat focuses on empowering individuals in which age group?
A) 10–24 years
B) 15–29 years
C) 18–35 years
D) 20–40 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15–29 years
153. Which of the following is NOT one of the five volunteer outreach focus areas under VVVP 2026?
A) Promotion of Swadeshi Products
B) Natural Farming
C) Digital Literacy Campaigns
D) Support for Local Tourism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Digital Literacy Campaigns
154. VVVP 2026 is being implemented in collaboration with MHA and which paramilitary force?
A) Border Security Force (BSF)
B) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
C) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
D) Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
155. India’s biodiversity conservation is primarily governed by which legislation?
A) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
B) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (amended in 2023)
C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
D) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (amended in 2023)
156. Which body functions at the grassroots level to involve local communities in biodiversity conservation?
A) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
B) State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)
C) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
D) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
157. The National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) 2024–2030 includes the ’30×30 Goal’, which aims to:
A) Reduce carbon emissions by 30% by 2030
B) Conserve 30% of terrestrial and marine ecosystems by 2030
C) Achieve 30% forest cover by 2030
D) Establish 30 new protected areas by 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Conserve 30% of terrestrial and marine ecosystems by 2030
158. The National Red List Roadmap (2025–2030) is spearheaded by ZSI and BSI with support from:
A) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
B) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
C) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
D) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
159. The Biodiversity Finance Initiative (BIOFIN) is a global programme led by:
A) World Bank
B) Asian Development Bank
C) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
D) International Monetary Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
160. Approximately how many Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) have been constituted across India?
A) 50,000
B) 1 lakh
C) 2.76 lakh
D) 5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2.76 lakh
161. The number of India’s internationally recognised Ramsar wetland sites increased from 26 in 2014 to how many by 2026?
A) 75
B) 85
C) 99
D) 110
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 99
162. Project Cheetah was initiated in 2022 with translocation of cheetahs from which countries?
A) Kenya, Tanzania, Zimbabwe
B) Namibia, South Africa, and Botswana
C) South Africa, Mozambique, and Angola
D) Zambia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Namibia, South Africa, and Botswana
163. India’s Dumpsite Remediation Accelerator Programme (DRAP), 2025, aims to eliminate legacy dumpsites by:
A) December 2025
B) March 2026
C) October 2026
D) March 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) October 2026
164. ‘HAWK’ (Hostile Activity Watch Kernel), used for wildlife protection, is best described as:
A) A mobile application for forest rangers
B) An AI-enabled surveillance system for anti-poaching operations
C) A satellite-based forest fire detection system
D) A drone surveillance programme under Project Tiger
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An AI-enabled surveillance system for anti-poaching operations
165. India reduced the emissions intensity of its GDP by over 36% compared to 2005 levels. The original target was to achieve a reduction of:
A) 25–30% by 2030
B) 33–35% by 2030
C) 40–45% by 2030
D) 50% by 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 33–35% by 2030
166. The International Solar Alliance was launched jointly by India and France during:
A) COP20 in Lima
B) COP21 in Paris
C) COP26 in Glasgow
D) G20 Summit in New Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) COP21 in Paris
167. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), established in 2023, brings together how many member countries?
A) 16
B) 20
C) 26
D) 34
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 26
168. India’s first mass-market flex-fuel motorcycles were developed by:
A) Bajaj Auto
B) TVS Motor Company
C) Hero MotoCorp
D) Royal Enfield
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Hero MotoCorp
169. Flex-fuel vehicles are capable of operating on ethanol-blended fuels ranging from:
A) E5 to E20
B) E10 to E50
C) E20 to E85
D) E20 to E100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) E20 to E85
170. A key difference between Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) and Bi-Fuel Vehicles is that FFVs:
A) Use two separate fuel tanks for different fuels
B) Require the driver to manually switch between fuels
C) Use a single fuel tank with blended fuels and adjust automatically
D) Can only run on CNG and petrol combinations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Use a single fuel tank with blended fuels and adjust automatically
171. India imports more than what percentage of its crude oil requirements?
A) 65%
B) 75%
C) 85%
D) 95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 85%
172. The ‘State of India’s Environment 2026 In Figures’ report was jointly released by:
A) MoEFCC and NITI Aayog
B) Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) and Down To Earth (DTE)
C) TERI and World Resources Institute
D) NIPFP and Planning Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) and Down To Earth (DTE)
173. According to the ‘State of India’s Environment 2026’ report, which state emerged as the best-performing state overall?
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Himachal Pradesh
D) Goa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Goa
174. The report states that deaths linked to ambient PM2.5 pollution increased by approximately what percentage over the last decade?
A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 61%
D) 83%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 61%
175. Which three states are identified as critically over-extracting groundwater beyond natural recharge levels?
A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka
B) Punjab, Rajasthan, and Haryana
C) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Punjab, Rajasthan, and Haryana
176. The National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 is the __ edition of the award.
A) 25th
B) 27th
C) 29th
D) 31st
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 29th
177. ‘Agri Stack’, a NAeG 2026 award winner, establishes a digital ecosystem built around unique farmer identities under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Rural Development
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
D) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
178. The Blood Bag Traceability Portal, a NAeG 2026 winner, was implemented by:
A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B) AIIMS New Delhi
C) Kerala Development and Innovation Strategic Council (K-DISC)
D) National Health Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Kerala Development and Innovation Strategic Council (K-DISC)
179. Which of the following was NOT elected as a non-permanent member of the UNSecurity Council for the 2027–2028 term?
A) Austria
B) Portugal
C) Serbia
D) Zimbabwe
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Serbia
180. Patna Kalam painting emerged during the 18th century as part of which broader school of art?
A) Rajput School of Art
B) Deccan School of Painting
C) Company School of Art
D) Bengal School of Art
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Company School of Art
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