Practice the March 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of March 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 31 March features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of March 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. India’s online content blocking powers are primarily governed by which section of the IT Act, 2000?
A) Section 43A
B) Section 66A
C) Section 69A
D) Section 79
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 69A
2. The Sahyog Portal, which enables agencies to send direct content removal requests to platforms, was launched by which ministry?
A) Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY)
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
D) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Home Affairs
3. The Sahyog Portal is operated by which body?
A) CERT-In
B) National Cyber Security Coordinator
C) Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
D) Data Security Council of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
4. In the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) judgment, the Supreme Court struck down which section for violating free speech under Article 19(1)(a)?
A) Section 69A
B) Section 66A
C) Section 79
D) Section 43A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 66A
5. Under Section 69A, the Government can block online content on which grounds among others?
A) Revenue collection and tax compliance
B) Sovereignty, national security, and public order
C) Intellectual property protection only
D) Consumer protection and privacy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sovereignty, national security, and public order
6. The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) is under which ministry?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) Ministry of Heavy Industries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
7. Dumping occurs when a product’s export price is:
A) Higher than its normal value in the home market
B) Equal to its normal value in the home market
C) Lower than its normal value in the home market
D) Subject to import quotas
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Lower than its normal value in the home market
8. Under India’s ‘Lesser Duty Rule’, the anti-dumping duty imposed is the lower of:
A) MFN tariff and dumping margin
B) Dumping margin and injury margin
C) Safeguard duty and injury margin
D) Countervailing duty and dumping margin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dumping margin and injury margin
9. Under WTO rules, an anti-dumping investigation ends if the dumping margin is below which threshold (de minimis)?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2%
10. The final decision to impose anti-dumping duty in India is taken by which authority?
A) DGTR under Ministry of Commerce
B) Department of Revenue under Ministry of Finance
C) Commerce Secretary
D) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Department of Revenue under Ministry of Finance
11. Ethyl chloroformate is primarily used in which industries?
A) Textiles and leather processing
B) Pharmaceuticals (APIs, antibiotics) and herbicides
C) Food processing and packaging
D) Construction and cement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Pharmaceuticals (APIs, antibiotics) and herbicides
12. India’s population is projected to grow from 1.35 billion (2021) to approximately how much by 2051?
A) 1.45 billion
B) 1.52 billion
C) 1.59 billion
D) 1.75 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1.59 billion
13. By 2051, India’s elderly population (60+) is projected to grow to approximately what share of the total population?
A) 12.5%
B) 16.8%
C) 20.5%
D) 25.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20.5%
14. India’s working-age population share is projected to peak in which year?
A) 2030
B) 2035
C) 2041
D) 2051
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2041
15. The growing demand for geriatric care, senior services, and assistive technologies due to an ageing population is referred to as:
A) Demographic Dividend
B) Silver Economy
C) Age Dependency Trap
D) Greying Workforce Effect
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Silver Economy
16. The Supreme Court’s call for structured paternity leave is aimed at reducing which economic
penalty faced by working women?
A) The Glass Ceiling Effect
B) The Motherhood Penalty
C) The Double Burden Syndrome
D) The Career Break Penalty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Motherhood Penalty
17. Currently, how many days of paternity leave are available to Central Government employees?
A) 7 days
B) 10 days
C) 15 days
D) 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15 days
18. One of the key challenges to implementing paternity leave in India is that over what percentage of the workforce is in the informal/unorganised sector?
A) 50%
B) 65%
C) 80%
D) 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80%
19. India’s ₹20,000 crore carbon credit programme announced in Union Budget 2026 is primarily aligned with which approach?
A) Agriculture-based carbon farming
B) Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS)
C) Nature-based solutions including afforestation
D) Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) through soil sequestration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS)
20. Which of the following greenhouse gases from agriculture makes it unsuitable for point-source carbon capture?
A) Carbon dioxide (CO2) and sulphur dioxide (SO2)
B) Methane (CH4) and Nitrous oxide (N2O)
C) Carbon monoxide (CO) and ozone (O3)
D) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Methane (CH4) and Nitrous oxide (N2O)
21. Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) differs from CCUS in that it:
A) Captures emissions from industrial point sources only
B) Removes CO2 already present in the atmosphere through nature-based approaches
C) Converts captured CO2 into industrial products
D) Uses underground geological storage exclusively
Show Answer
Correct Answer :B) Removes CO2 already present in the atmosphere through nature-based approaches
22. The CCUS approach primarily targets emissions from which sectors?
A) Agriculture and fisheries
B) Transport and logistics
C) Power, steel, cement, refineries, and chemicals
D) Information technology and services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Power, steel, cement, refineries, and chemicals
23. Chapchar Kut is celebrated as the biggest spring festival of which Indian state?
A) Nagaland
B) Manipur
C) Meghalaya
D) Mizoram
Show Answer
Correct Answer : D) Mizoram
24. Chapchar Kut is popularly known as the ‘Festival of Joy’ and marks the completion of which traditional agricultural practice?
A) Rice transplantation
B) Jungle clearing for Jhum (shifting) cultivation
C) Harvest of winter crops
D) Irrigation canal opening ceremony
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Jungle clearing for Jhum (shifting) cultivation
25. Chapchar Kut originated in the 15th century and was revived as a secular cultural festival in which year?
A) 1947
B) 1965
C) 1973
D) 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1973
26. Purple Fest 2026 was hosted at Rashtrapati Bhavan and organised by which department?
A) Department of Social Welfare
B) Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD)
C) National Trust for Welfare of Persons with Disabilities
D) Rehabilitation Council of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD)
27. Purple Fest 2026 falls under which ministry?
A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D) Ministry of Women and Child Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
28. The colour purple at Purple Fest symbolises which values associated with the disability rights movement?
A) Awareness and solidarity
B) Dignity and independence
C) Inclusion and courage
D) Resilience and hope
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dignity and independence
29. India’s anti-dumping duty on imports is valid for how many years and can be extended through which mechanism?
A) 3 years, extended via Mid-term Review
B) 5 years, extended via Sunset Review
C) 7 years, extended via Comprehensive Review
D) 10 years, extended via Parliamentary approval
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5 years, extended via Sunset Review
30. The proposed decentralisation of content-blocking powers under Section 69A is a concern because it could lead to which outcome?
A) Faster removal of illegal content
B) Better coordination between ministries
C) Multiple ministries issuing orders causing overreach and confusion
D) Stronger safe harbour protection for platforms
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Multiple ministries issuing orders causing overreach and confusion
31. The total number of illegal betting/gambling platforms blocked by MeitY has reached approximately:
A) 2,400
B) 4,800
C) 6,200
D) 8,400
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 8,400
32. The PROG Act, 2025 (Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act) enforces a blanket ban on:
A) All online gaming platforms
B) Online money gaming (betting/gambling)
C) Mobile-based gaming apps
D) Foreign gaming companies only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Online money gaming (betting/gambling)
33. GST evasion by illegal gaming platforms is investigated by which body?
A) Enforcement Directorate
B) Directorate General of GST Intelligence
C) Central Board of Direct Taxes
D) Financial Intelligence Unit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Directorate General of GST Intelligence
34. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which section deals with organised economic cybercrime?
A) Section 66A
B) Section 69A
C) Section 111
D) Section 124A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 111
35. According to MHA data, ‘digital arrest’ scam cases in 2024 caused financial losses of approximately:
A) ₹450 crore
B) ₹980 crore
C) ₹1,935 crore
D) ₹3,200 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹1,935 crore
36. MHA directed WhatsApp to block IMEI numbers of devices used by scammers. This primarily prevents:
A) International calls from fraudulent numbers
B) Reuse of same devices with new SIM cards
C) Encrypted messages from reaching victims
D) APK file sharing on the platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reuse of same devices with new SIM cards
37. Under IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, WhatsApp must preserve metadata of accounts for:
A) 30 days
B) 90 days
C) 180 days
D) 365 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 180 days
38. The Supreme Court ruled that the 40% disability threshold under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 is:
A) Both a floor and a ceiling
B) A maximum upper limit for employment
C) A minimum benchmark (floor), not a ceiling
D) A guideline without legal binding
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) A minimum benchmark (floor), not a ceiling
39. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 expanded the number of recognised disabilities from 7 to:
A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 21
40. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 mandates reservation of what percentage of seats in government jobs for PwDs?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 4%
41. The Supreme Court’s ruling on disability ceiling in employment primarily upholds which constitutional articles?
A) Article 19 and Article 21
B) Article 14 and Article 16
C) Article 15 and Article 17
D) Article 21 and Article 23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 14 and Article 16
42. The right to vote in India is granted under which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 21
B) Article 243
C) Article 326
D) Article 368
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 326
43. The Supreme Court has held that the right to vote in India is a:
A) Fundamental Right
B) Constitutional Right
C) Statutory Right
D) Natural Right
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Statutory Right
44. Arguments against compulsory voting include that abstaining from voting is a form of expression protected under:
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 19(1)(a)
45. Which country is often cited as an example of high voter turnout (~90%) through compulsory voting?
A) Sweden
B) Switzerland
C) Australia
D) New Zealand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Australia
46. India’s forex reserves are held by which body?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) SEBI
C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
47. The largest component of India’s foreign exchange reserves is:
A) Gold Reserves
B) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
C) Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
D) Reserve Tranche Position
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
48. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) in India’s forex reserves are an international reserve asset of:
A) World Bank
B) Asian Development Bank
C) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
D) Bank for International Settlements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
49. Urea contains what percentage of nitrogen, the highest among nitrogenous fertilisers?
A) 26%
B) 33%
C) 40%
D) 46%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 46%
40. The Haber-Bosch process is used to produce which key intermediate for urea synthesis?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Ammonia
C) Nitric acid
D) Methane
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ammonia
41. Approximately what percentage of India’s urea imports come from West Asia?
A) 35%
B) 50%
C) 71%
D) 85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer :C) 71%
42. Nano Urea was developed by which organisation?
A) IFFCO (Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited)
B) NFDC
C) RCFL
D) NFL
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) IFFCO (Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited)
43. Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme (MCGS), credit guarantee is provided by which body?
A) SIDBI
B) NABARD
C) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)
D) RBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)
44. The standard credit guarantee coverage under MCGS for regular MSMEs is:
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60%
45. Under the modified MCGS, the minimum machinery cost as a share of project cost has been reduced from 75% to:
A) 50%
B) 55%
C) 60%
D) 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60%
46. The Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement was finalised under which WTO initiative?
A) Doha Development Agenda
B) Joint Statement Initiative (JSI)
C) Trade Facilitation Agreement
D) Singapore Issues
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Joint Statement Initiative (JSI)
47. India’s primary objection to the IFD Agreement is that investment is not strictly a ‘trade’ subject, meaning it is:
A) Already covered under GATT rules
B) Outside WTO’s core mandate
C) Protected by existing BITs
D) Covered under TRIPS agreement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Outside WTO’s core mandate
48. Lipulekh Pass is located at the tri-junction of India, Nepal and China (Tibet), situated in which Indian state?
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Sikkim
C) Uttarakhand
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Uttarakhand
49. The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was reorganised into Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in which year?
A) 1924
B) 1926
C) 1928
D) 1930
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1928
50. INS Taragiri belongs to which class of stealth guided-missile frigates being built under Project 17A?
A) Shivalik-class
B) Talwar-class
C) Nilgiri-class
D) Kamorta-class
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nilgiri-class
51. World Tuberculosis Day is observed on which date every year?
A) 14 March
B) 21 March
C) 24 March
D) 30 March
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 24 March
52. World TB Day marks the discovery of the tuberculosis bacterium by Robert Koch in which year?
A) 1872
B) 1882
C) 1892
D) 1902
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 1882
53.The theme of World TB Day 2026 is:
A) End TB by 2030 — A Global Commitment
B) Yes! We Can End TB! Led by countries, powered by people
C) TB Free World — Science and Innovation
D) Unite to End TB — No One Left Behind
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Yes! We Can End TB! Led by countries, powered by people
54. Tuberculosis is caused by which bacterium?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Legionella pneumophila
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
55. MDR-TB (Multidrug-Resistant TB) is resistant to which two first-line drugs?
A) Streptomycin and Ethambutol
B) Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol
C) Isoniazid and Rifampicin
D) Bedaquiline and Linezolid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Isoniazid and Rifampicin
56. India accounts for approximately what percentage of global TB cases?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 25%
57. Under the Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana, TB patients receive financial support of how much per month for nutritional support?
A) ₹500
B) ₹750
C) ₹1,000
D) ₹1,50
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) ₹1,000
58. The Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 amends which two Acts?
A) Companies Act, 2013 and SEBI Act, 1992
B) Companies Act, 2013 and LLP Act, 2008
C) FEMA, 1999 and Companies Act, 2013
D) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and LLP Act, 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Companies Act, 2013 and LLP Act, 2008
59. Under the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026, the CSR net profit threshold has been raised from ₹5 crore to:
A) ₹7 crore
B) ₹8 crore
C) ₹10 crore
D) ₹15 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹10 crore
60. Under the expanded definition of ‘Small Company’ in the Amendment Bill, the paid-up capital limit is:
A) Up to ₹5 crore
B) Up to ₹10 crore
C) Up to ₹20 crore
D) Up to ₹50 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Up to ₹20 crore
61. The Amendment Bill allows companies to conduct how many share buybacks per year, with a minimum gap between them?
A) 1 buyback with no restrictions
B) 2 buybacks with minimum 6-month gap
C) 3 buybacks with minimum 3-month gap
D) 2 buybacks with minimum 12-month gap
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) 2 buybacks with minimum 6-month gap
62. India’s total Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) capacity is:
A) 3.37 MMT
B) 4.50 MMT
C) 5.33 MMT
D) 6.75 MMT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5.33 MMT
63. India’s SPR is managed by which body under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas?
A) Oil Industry Development Board
B) Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL)
C) Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell
D) Directorate General of Hydrocarbons
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL)
64. The international norm for strategic petroleum reserves, as recommended by the IEA, is how many days of net oil imports?
A) 45 days
B) 60 days
C) 75 days
D) 90 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) 90 days
65. Which of the following is an approved NEW site for India’s SPR expansion?
A) Bikaner, Rajasthan
B) Rajkot, Gujarat
C) Chandikhol, Odisha
D) Bhatinda, Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chandikhol, Odisha
66. At full SPR capacity, India can cover approximately how many days of crude oil requirement?
A) 5 days
B) 9.5 days
C) 15 days
D) 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 9.5 days
67. India achieved 1 billion tonnes of coal production for how many consecutive years?
A) First year
B) Second consecutive year
C) Third consecutive year
D) Fourth consecutive year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Second consecutive year
68. Which state led India’s coal production with 239.4 MT in the recent year?
A) Jharkhand
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Odisha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : D) Odisha
69. Coking coal imports increased despite overall coal import decline because India has limited domestic availability of high-grade coking coal needed for:
A) Power generation
B) Steel production
C) Fertiliser manufacturing
D) Cement production
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Steel production
70. Coking coal has been notified as a Critical and Strategic Mineral, which provides the benefit of:
A) 100% FDI through automatic route
B) Faster approvals and exemption from public consultation
C) Subsidised pricing for steel sector
D) Mandatory government ownership of mines
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Faster approvals and exemption from public consultation
71. World Water Day is observed on which date, with the 2026 theme being ‘Water and Gender’?
A) 14 March
B) 20 March
C) 22 March
D) 25 March
Show Answer
Correct Answer :C) 22 March
72.The National Water Data Policy 2026 is managed through which centralized repository?
A) Central Water Commission Portal
B) National Water Informatics Centre
C) Jal Shakti Digital Platform
D) National Hydrology Project Database
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Water Informatics Centre
73. A key shift in the National Water Data Policy 2026 is moving from administrative boundaries to managing rivers as:
A) State-wise irrigation zones
B) District-level water units
C) Single management entities at the hydrological basin scale
D) Ministry-controlled water grids
Show Answer
Correct Answer :C) Single management entities at the hydrological basin scale
74.BIMSTEC was established in which year through the Bangkok Declaration?
A) 1990
B) 1994
C) 1997
D) 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1997
75. Where is the BIMSTEC Secretariat located?
A) Colombo
B) Kathmandu
C) Dhaka
D) Bangkok
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Dhaka
76. Which of the following is NOT a BIMSTEC member country?
A) Myanmar
B) Thailand
C) Pakistan
D) Bhutan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Pakistan
77.The GARBH-INi Programme is led by which department?
A) Department of Health Research
B) Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
C) Indian Council of Medical Research
D) Ministry of Women and Child Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
78. Garbhini-GA2, developed by IIT Madras, is an AI model designed to:
A) Detect gestational diabetes in pregnant women
B) Monitor fetal heartbeat in real time
C) Accurately determine fetal age for Indian women
D) Predict preterm birth risk using genetic markers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Accurately determine fetal age for Indian women
79. The National AI Skilling Initiative under India’s media sector aims to train how many creators and professionals in AI-driven content creation?
A) 5,000
B) 10,000
C) 15,000
D) 25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15,000
70. India’s first fully automated LPG dispensing machine (Bharatgas Insta LPG Machine) was launched in which city?
A) Mumbai
B) Bengaluru
C) Gurugram
D) Hyderabad
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Gurugram
71. The SC status framework in India is governed by which constitutional order issued under Article 341(1)?
A) Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1936
B) Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
C) Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1960
D) Constitution (Backward Classes) Order, 1993
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
72. Under the existing legal framework, SC status is available only to persons professing which religions?
A) Hinduism and Buddhism only
B) Hinduism and Sikhism only
C) Hinduism, Islam, and Christianity
D) Hinduism, Sikhism, and Buddhism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Hinduism, Sikhism, and Buddhism
73. SC status was extended to Sikhs in which year?
A) 1950
B) 1956
C) 1966
D) 1976
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1956
74. SC status was extended to Buddhists in which year?
A) 1976
B) 1985
C) 1990
D) 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1990
75. The ‘Doctrine of Eclipse’ in the context of SC status means:
A) SC status is permanently extinguished upon conversion
B) SC status is suspended but can be revived upon reconversion and community re-acceptance
C) SC status transfers automatically to children regardless of religion
D) SC status is paused for 5 years after conversion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SC status is suspended but can be revived upon reconversion and community re-
acceptance
76. Unlike SC status, Scheduled Tribe (ST) eligibility has NO religion-based bar and depends on:
A) Linguistic identity and caste certificates
B) Economic status and land ownership
C) Community customs, community acceptance, and adherence to tribal practices
D) Geographical location and state government notification only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Community customs, community acceptance, and adherence to tribal practices
7. Who has the power to amend the SC list under the Constitution?
A) President after consulting the Governor
B) Parliament only
C) Supreme Court of India
D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Parliament only
78. Dalits who convert to Islam or Christianity are typically placed under which category?
A) Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
B) Scheduled Castes through Presidential notification
C) OBC or state-specific Backward Class (BC) lists
D) Minority Communities without reservation benefits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) OBC or state-specific Backward Class (BC) lists
79. The Supreme Court granted Permanent Commission (PC) to eligible women officers invoking which Article to ensure complete justice?
A) Article 136
B) Article 139A
C) Article 142
D) Article 226
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 142
80. For pension purposes under the SC ruling, women SSC officers are treated as having completed how many years of deemed service?
A) 10 years
B) 15 years
C) 20 years
D) 25 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20 years
81. Women were first allowed into the Indian Army via Short Service Commission (SSC) in which year?
A) 1985
B) 1988
C) 1992
D) 1996
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1992
82. The landmark case that first ordered Permanent Commission for women officers in the armed forces in 2020 was:
A) Anjali Mohapatra Case
B) Priya Singh Paul Case
C) Babita Puniya Case
D) Seema Singh Case
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Babita Puniya Case
83. The Supreme Court’s ruling identified which systemic failure in the evaluation of women SSC officers?
A) Inadequate training facilities for women officers
B) Biased performance reports with casual grading assuming no career progression
C) Lack of legal framework for PC in the Army Act
D) Absence of cadre posts for women in combat roles
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Biased performance reports with casual grading assuming no career progression
84. The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) was established in which year and is based in which city?
A) 1945, New York
B) 1948, Brussels
C) 1950, Geneva
D) 1955, Vienna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1950, Geneva
85. According to WMO’s State of the Global Climate 2025 report, the year 2025 was approximately how much above the pre-industrial baseline?
A) ~1.1°C
B) ~1.23°C
C) ~1.43°C
D) ~1.75°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~1.43°C
86. The WMO report introduced Earth’s Energy Imbalance (EEI) for the first time. EEI is defined as:
A) Difference between polar and equatorial temperatures
B) Incoming solar energy minus outgoing radiation
C) Net heat lost through ocean evaporation
D) Carbon absorbed by forests minus industrial emissions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Incoming solar energy minus outgoing radiation
87. According to the WMO 2025 report, approximately what percentage of the global ocean surface experienced marine heatwaves in 2025?
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 75%
D) 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 90%
88. The WMO report states that the global sea-level rise rate in recent years has doubled compared to the rate during which earlier period?
A) 1980–1990
B) 1993–2002
C) 2000–2010
D) 2005–2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) 1993–2002
89. The GlobE Network was formally launched in which year, following the Riyadh Initiative during Saudi Arabia’s G20 Presidency?
A) 2019
B) 2020
C) 2021
D) 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2021
90. The GlobE Network operates under which international legal framework?
A) UN Convention Against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC)
B) UN Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC)
C) Financial Action Task Force (FATF) recommendations
D) Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) UN Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC)
91. The permanent secretariat of the GlobE Network is located in which city?
A) Geneva
B) New York
C) Vienna
D) The Hague
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) Vienna
92. India hosted the 12th GlobE Network Steering Committee Meeting. Which two Indian agencies co-hosted the event?
A) CBI and NIA
B) Enforcement Directorate (ED) and CBI
C) NCB and Income Tax Department
D) Intelligence Bureau and RAW
93. India joined the GlobE Network in which year and was elected to its Steering Committee in which year?
A) Joined 2021, elected 2023
B) Joined 2022, elected 2024
C) Joined 2023, elected 2025
D) Joined 2020, elected 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Joined 2022, elected 2024
94. The World Air Quality Report 2025 is published by which organisation?
A) WHO
B) UNEP
C) IQAir (Swiss air quality monitoring company)
D) World Resources Institute
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) IQAir (Swiss air quality monitoring company)
95. According to the World Air Quality Report 2025, only what percentage of cities complied with the WHO PM2.5 annual guideline?
A) 8%
B) 14%
C) 22%
D) 31%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 14%
96. The WHO PM2.5 annual guideline is set at:
A) 2 μg/m3
B) 5 μg/m3
C) 10 μg/m3
D) 15 μg/m3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5 μg/m3
97. According to the World Air Quality Report 2025, which Indian city was identified as the most polluted city globally?
A) Delhi
B) Patna
C) Faridabad
D) Loni, Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Loni, Uttar Pradesh
98. India’s rank in the World Air Quality Report 2025 as the most polluted country was:
A) 2nd
B) 4th
C) 6th
D) 8th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6th
99. New Delhi has been ranked the world’s most polluted capital for how many consecutive years as per the 2025 report?
A) 4th consecutive year
B) 6th consecutive year
C) 8th consecutive year
D) 10th consecutive year
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 8th consecutive year
100. According to the World Air Quality Report 2025, which country was ranked the most polluted with PM2.5 levels over 13 times the WHO limit?
A) India
B) Bangladesh
C) Pakistan
D) China
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pakistan
101. The 14th WTO Ministerial Conference (MC14) is being held in which city?
A) Geneva
B) Nairobi
C) Yaoundé
D) Buenos Aires
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Yaoundé
102. The WTO Ministerial Conference is established under which agreement?
A) GATT 1947
B) Marrakesh Agreement
C) Singapore Ministerial Declaration
D) Doha Development Agenda
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Marrakesh Agreement
103. The WTO’s Appellate Body has been non-functional since which year, creating a crisis in dispute settlement?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2019
104. The e-commerce moratorium at WTO, under debate at MC14, prevents member countries from imposing customs duties on:
A) Physical goods traded via e-commerce platforms
B) Electronic transmissions such as software, music, and digital services
C) Cross-border data flows and cloud services
D) Foreign e-commerce companies operating domestically
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Electronic transmissions such as software, music, and digital services
105. India’s position on the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement at WTO is that it:
A) Should be immediately ratified by all members
B) Needs amendments to protect developing country interests
C) Is outside WTO’s core mandate and violates consensus principle
D) Should replace existing bilateral investment treaties
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Is outside WTO’s core mandate and violates consensus principle
106. India aims to build how many tonnes of domestic Rare Earth Permanent Magnet (REPM) capacity by 2030?
A) 1,000 tonnes
B) 2,500 tonnes
C) 5,000 tonnes
D) 8,000 tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5,000 tonnes
107. The strongest type of rare earth permanent magnet, widely used in EV motors and wind turbines, is:
A) Samarium-Cobalt (Sm-Co)
B) Neodymium-Iron-Boron (NdFeB)
C) Alnico (Aluminium-Nickel-Cobalt)
D) Ferrite magnets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Neodymium-Iron-Boron (NdFeB)
108. India’s primary domestic source of rare earth elements is which mineral?
A) Bauxite
B) Magnetite
C) Monazite
D) Chromite
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Monazite
109. India holds approximately what percentage of global rare earth reserves, making it the 3rd largest globally?
A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 6%
D) 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6%
110. The MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 removed lithium from the atomic category and enabled:
A) Government monopoly on lithium mining
B) Private sector participation in lithium and critical mineral mining
C) Export ban on critical minerals
D) Mandatory joint ventures with foreign companies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Private sector participation in lithium and critical mineral mining
111. India’s lithium exploration rights in Argentina were secured by which organisation?
A) Coal India Limited
B) Hindustan Zinc Limited
C) Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL)
D) ONGC Videsh Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL)
112. The IVFRT Scheme was originally launched in which year under the National e-Governance Plan?
A) 2005
B) 2008
C) 2010
D) 2014
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2010
113. The IVFRT Scheme is implemented by which agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
A) NIC
B) Bureau of Immigration
C) Central Passport Organisation
D) Intelligence Bureau
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Bureau of Immigration
114. Under IVFRT, the Fast Track Immigration-Trusted Traveller Programme uses e-gates that reduce clearance time to approximately:
A) 2 minutes
B) 1 minute
C) 45 seconds
D) ~30 seconds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ~30 seconds
115. The IVFRT scheme’s continuation has been approved till which year?
A) 2027
B) 2028
C) 2030
D) 2031
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 2031
116. The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) is currently administered by which ministry?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of External Affairs
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Home Affairs
117. A key amendment in the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026 is the creation of a designated authority to manage assets when an NGO’s licence is:
A) Voluntarily surrendered
B) Cancelled or suspended
C) Under investigation by ED
D) Transferred to another NGO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cancelled or suspended
118. The FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026 reduces the maximum imprisonment penalty from 5 years to:
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 3 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: : B) 1 year
119. Under the 2020 FCRA amendment, all FCRA-registered NGOs are required to maintain their mandatory bank account at:
A) Any nationalised bank branch
B) State Bank of India, New Delhi Main Branch
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) A bank approved by the Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State Bank of India, New Delhi Main Branch
120. The Modified UDAN scheme covers which period?
A) FY 2024–25 to FY 2029–30
B) FY 2025–26 to FY 2034–35
C) FY 2026–27 to FY 2035–36
D) FY 2027–28 to FY 2036–37
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) FY 2026–27 to FY 2035–36
121. Under Modified UDAN, Viability Gap Funding (VGF) tenure has been extended from 3 years to:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 10 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) 5 years
122. The Modified UDAN scheme is implemented by which body?
A) DGCA
B) Air India
C) Airports Authority of India
D) Ministry of Civil Aviation directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Airports Authority of India
123. Which of the following is a key change in funding mechanism under Modified UDAN?
A) Funded entirely by airline revenue sharing
B) Shift from passenger levy-based Regional Connectivity Fund to direct Union government
funding
C) Public-private partnership with 50% state contribution
D) User fee-based model for airport development
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Shift from passenger levy-based Regional Connectivity Fund to direct Union
government funding
124. India’s NDC 3.0 targets a reduction in emission intensity from 2005 levels by:
A) 33%
B) 40%
C) 45%
D) 47%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 47%
125. India’s NDC 3.0 targets what percentage of installed power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035?
A) 45%
B) 50%
C) 55%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 60%
126. India’s NDC 3.0 targets an additional carbon sink of how many billion tonnes CO2 equivalent through forest and tree cover?
A) 1.5–2.0 billion tonnes
B) 2.5–3.0 billion tonnes
C) 3.5–4.0 billion tonnes
D) 4.5–5.0 billion tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3.5–4.0 billion tonnes
127. The RBI’s Variable Rate Repo (VRR) is used to address temporary liquidity shortages. Banks provide which asset as collateral?
A) Foreign exchange reserves
B) Gold holdings
C) Government Securities (G-Secs)
D) Corporate bonds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Government Securities (G-Secs)
128. The Aghanashini–Vedavathi river-linking project in Karnataka raised UNESCO concerns because the project intersects the Western Ghats, which was declared a World Heritage Site in:
A) 2004
B) 2008
C) 2012
D) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2012
129.The G7 began in 1975 as the G6. Which country joined in 1976 to make it G7?
A) Japan
B) Italy
C) Canada
D) Germany
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Canada
130. Russia was suspended from the G8 in which year and over which event?
A) 2010, invasion of Georgia
B) 2014, annexation of Crimea
C) 2016, interference in US elections
D) 2022, invasion of Ukraine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2014, annexation of Crimea
131. The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 was introduced in which House of Parliament?
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both Houses simultaneously
D) A Joint Parliamentary Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rajya Sabha
132. How many Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) does the Bill apply to?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5
133. How many Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) does the Bill apply to?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 5
134. Under the CAPF Bill, what percentage of Director General (DG) and Special DG posts are reserved for IPS officers?
A) 50%
B) 67%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 100%
135. The CAPF Bill, 2026 includes a Legislative Override Clause, meaning it will:
A) Be subject to judicial review by High Courts
B) Override any conflicting law, judgment, or court order
C) Require state government consent before implementation
D) Be reviewed every 5 years by Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Override any conflicting law, judgment, or court order
136. The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) is levied under which legal provision?
A) Section 75 of the Customs Act, 1962
B) Section 147 of the Finance Act, 2002
C) Section 9A of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975
D) Section 35 of the Central Excise Act, 1944
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 147 of the Finance Act, 2002
137. SAED is reviewed every how many weeks based on global crude oil prices?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 4 weeks
D) 6 weeks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2 weeks
138. A key feature of SAED that distinguishes it from GST is that its revenue is:
A) Shared equally between Centre and States
B) Transferred entirely to the Consolidated Fund of States
C) Not shared with states
D) Distributed through the Finance Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Not shared with states
139. When global crude oil prices rise sharply, the policy logic dictates that SAED should be:
A) Increased to capture windfall profits
B) Reduced to protect consumers from fuel price hikes
C) Kept constant to maintain fiscal stability
D) Converted into a GST cess
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Reduced to protect consumers from fuel price hikes
140. The Basel Convention on hazardous waste was adopted in which year and came into force in which year?
A) Adopted 1985, in force 1989
B) Adopted 1989, in force 1992
C) Adopted 1992, in force 1995
D) Adopted 1995, in force 1998
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Adopted 1989, in force 1992
141. Under the Basel Convention, which principle requires the exporting country to seek approval before sending hazardous waste?
A) Polluter Pays Principle
B) Extended Producer Responsibility
C) Prior Informed Consent (PIC)
D) Environmentally Sound Management (ESM)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Prior Informed Consent (PIC)
142. The 2019 Basel Convention amendment bans export of hazardous e-waste from which group of countries to non-OECD nations?
A) BRICS countries
B) G20 member states
C) OECD and EU countries
D) UN Security Council permanent members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) OECD and EU countries
143. India ratified the Basel Convention in which year?
A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1992
D) 1995
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1992
144. The practice of developed countries illegally dumping waste in developing nations is commonly referred to as:
A) Carbon colonialism
B) Waste colonialism
C) Ecological imperialism
D) Environmental dumping
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Waste colonialism
145. In the US social media addiction trial, which two companies were found guilty of designing addictive platforms?
A) Facebook and TikTok
B) Meta Platforms and YouTube
C) Instagram and Snapchat
D) Twitter/X and Meta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Meta Platforms and YouTube
146. The total compensation awarded in the US social media addiction trial was:
A) $1 million
B) $3.5 million
C) $6 million
D) $10 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $6 million
147. The court bypassed Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act (1996) because it treated the platforms as:
A) Content publishers liable for user posts
B) Products liable for design-level negligence
C) Public utilities under government regulation
D) Monopolies violating antitrust law
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Products liable for design-level negligence
148. Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act, 1996 traditionally protects tech companies from liability for:
A) Their own advertising practices
B) Algorithm-driven content recommendations
C) User-generated content on their platforms
D) Data privacy violations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) User-generated content on their platforms
149. India’s deal to purchase 5 squadrons of S-400 systems from Russia was signed in which year for how much?
A) 2016, $3.2 billion
B) 2018, $5.43 billion
C) 2020, $4.8 billion
D) 2017, $6.1 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2018, $5.43 billion
150. The S-400 air defence system is known by which Indian designation?
A) Akash Prime
B) Barak-8
C) Sudarshan
D) Trishul
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sudarshan
151. The S-400 system can track up to how many targets simultaneously?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 400
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 300
152. The S-400 uses a ‘Cold Launch Mechanism’ in which the missile is first ejected to about 30 metres using gas pressure before the main engine ignites. This provides which key tactical advantage?
A) Longer range than hot launch systems
B) 360° engagement capability without rotating the launcher
C) Reduced radar signature during launch
D) Faster reload time for consecutive shots
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 360° engagement capability without rotating the launcher
153. India’s purchase of S-400 systems faces potential sanctions under which US law?
A) Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)
B) Global Magnitsky Act
C) Iran, North Korea, and Syria Nonproliferation Act
D) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer : A) Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)
154. The QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026 are published by which organisation?
A) Times Higher Education
B) Quacquarelli Symonds (QS)
C) NIRF
D) Academic Ranking of World Universities (ARWU)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Quacquarelli Symonds (QS)
155. According to QS Subject Rankings 2026, India ranks 4th globally in total institutions ranked, behind which three countries?
A) USA, China, Germany
B) USA, China, United Kingdom
C) USA, UK, Australia
D) USA, Japan, Germany
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) USA, China, United Kingdom
156. Which IIT leads India in the Engineering & Technology subject category in the QS Subject Rankings 2026?
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Madras
C) IIT Kanpur
D) IIT Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) IIT Delhi
157. CALM-Brain, India’s first psychiatric data repository, was developed under which centre’s initiative?
A) AIIMS Research Centre for Brain Science
B) Rohini Nilekani Centre for Brain and Mind
C) National Mental Health Research Institute
D) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rohini Nilekani Centre for Brain and Mind
158. The Aghanashini–Vedavathi river-linking project in Karnataka raised UNESCO concerns because the project intersects the Western Ghats, which was declared a World Heritage Site in:
A) 2004
B) 2008
C) 2012
D) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2012
159.The S-400 system’s maximum engagement range is up to:
A) 200 km
B) 300 km
C) 400 km
D) 600 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 400 km
160. Which IIM entered the global top 100 in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026?
A) IIM Ahmedabad
B) IIM Bangalore
C) IIM Calcutta
D) IIM Kozhikode
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) IIM Kozhikode
161. What is the current strength of the Lok Sabha?
A) 500 members
B) 530 members
C) 543 members
D) 600 members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 543 members
162. The proposed expansion of the Lok Sabha would increase its strength to approximately how many
members?
A) 650
B) 720
C) 816
D) 900
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 816
163. Under the proposal, approximately how many seats would be reserved for women (one-third)?
A) 181 seats
B) 221 seats
C) 273 seats
D) 300 seats
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 273 seats
164. Women’s reservation in the Lok Sabha is linked to which Constitutional Amendment Act?
A) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
B) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020
C) 105th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021
D) 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023
165. Increasing the Lok Sabha strength beyond current limits requires amending which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 79
B) Article 81
C) Article 83
D) Article 85
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Article 81
166. The ‘delinking’ proposal in Lok Sabha expansion refers to separating women’s reservation from:
A) Parliamentary elections and by-elections
B) Census and delimitation processes
C) State assembly elections
D) Presidential election processes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Census and delimitation processes
167. A constitutional amendment to expand Lok Sabha requires which type of majority?
A) Simple majority of members present and voting
B) Absolute majority of total membership only
C) Two-thirds of members present and voting AND absolute majority of total membership
D) Three-fourths of total membership of both Houses
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Two-thirds of members present and voting AND absolute majority of total membership
168. Brazil’s Proálcool Programme was launched in which year in response to the 1973 oil crisis?
A) 1973
B) 1975
C) 1978
D) 1980
Correct Answer: B) 1975
Show Answer
169. India’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was launched in which year?
A) 1999
B) 2001
C) 2003
D) 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2003
170. India achieved 20% ethanol blending (E20) in 2025, which was ahead of the original target set for:
A) 2025
B) 2027
C) 2030
D) 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2030
171. The chemical formula of ethanol is:
A) CH3OH
B) C2H5OH
C) C3H7OH
D) C4H9OH
Correct Answer: B) C2H5OH
Show Answer
172. 2G Ethanol (second-generation ethanol) is produced from:
A) Food crops like sugarcane and maize
B) Agricultural residues and biomass waste
C) Algae
D) Genetically engineered biomass
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Agricultural residues and biomass waste
173. Ethanol blending at E20 levels leads to approximately how much reduction in CO2 emissions compared to conventional fuels?
A) 5–8%
B) 10–12%
C) 15–20%
D) 25–30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15–20%
174. India imports approximately what percentage of its crude oil requirements?
A) Carbon colonialism
B) Waste colonialism
C) Ecological imperialism
D) Environmental dumping
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Waste colonialism
175. The Global Assessment of Migratory Freshwater Fishes Report was released at COP15 of which convention?
A) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
B) Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS)
C) Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
D) CITES
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS)
176. CMS is also known as the Bonn Convention and is backed by which UN body?
A) UNESCO
B) UNDP
C) UNEP
D) FAO
Correct Answer: C) UNEP
Show Answer
177. According to the report, global populations of migratory freshwater fish have declined by what percentage since 1970?
A) 45%
B) 62%
C) 75%
D) 81%
Show Answer
Correct Answer:D) 81%
178. The report identifies which group as the most threatened vertebrate group globally?
A) Salmon and trout
B) Eels and lampreys
C) Sturgeons and paddlefishes
D) Catfish and carp
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sturgeons and paddlefishes
179. Which Indian river system is identified as a critical hotspot due to high migratory freshwater fish biomass?
A) Godavari–Krishna basin
B) Ganga–Brahmaputra–Meghna river system
C) Indus–Sutlej basin
D) Mahanadi–Damodar basin
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Ganga–Brahmaputra–Meghna river system
180. The Indian Army plans to expand Shaurya Squadrons across how many total armoured regiments?
A) 30
B) 45
C) 63
D) 80
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 63
181. India has the highest share of endemic freshwater finfish species in Asia at approximately:
A) 12.5%
B) 18.3%
C) 22.4%
D) 27.8%
Correct Answer: D) 27.8%
182. Arsenic groundwater contamination in India is primarily concentrated in which river basin?
A) Godavari–Krishna basin
B) Ganga–Brahmaputra basin
C) Narmada–Tapti basin
D) Cauvery basin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Ganga–Brahmaputra basin
183. According to NITI Aayog, unsafe drinking water leads to approximately how many deaths annually in India?
A) 50,000
B) 1 lakh
C) 2 lakh
D) 5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 2 lakh
184. India accounts for over what percentage of global groundwater usage?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Quacquarelli Symonds (QS)
185. The lessons driving India’s Shaurya Squadron doctrine draw from the extensive use of kamikaze drones to destroy armoured vehicles in which conflict?
A) Israel–Gaza conflict
B) Russia–Ukraine War
C) Nagorno-Karabakh War
D) Syrian Civil War
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Russia–Ukraine War
186. The Ministry of Jal Shakti has trained how many women to use Field Testing Kits (FTKs) for grassroots water quality monitoring?
A) 5 lakh
B) 10 lakh
C) 18 lakh
D) 24.8 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 24.8 lakh
187. According to the World Bank, water-related issues could reduce India’s GDP by approximately what percentage by 2050?
A) 2%
B) 4%
C) 6%
D) 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6%
188. Shaurya Squadrons are drone units integrated within which branch of the Indian Armed Forces?
A) Indian Air Force fighter squadrons
B) Indian Navy coastal defence units
C) Indian Army armoured/tank regiments
D) Rapid Action Force
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Indian Army armoured/tank regiments
189.Which type of drone used in Shaurya Squadrons is designed to loiter over a target area and then crash into it for destruction?
A) FPV drones
B) Swarm drones
C) Surveillance drones
D) Loitering munitions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Loitering munitions
190. Each Shaurya Squadron comprises how many trained personnel?
A) 10–15
B) 20–30
C) 40–50
D) 60–80
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 20–30
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