Practice the March 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of March 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 March features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of March 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the State impose reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech in the interest of public order?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)
C) Article 19(2)
D) Article 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 19(2)
2. Which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (earlier IPC 153A) punishes promotion of enmity between communities?
A) Section 196
B) Section 299
C) Section 353
D) Section 420
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Section 196
3. In which Supreme Court case did the Court direct the Law Commission to recommend reforms on hate speech?
A) Ramji Lal Modi v. State of UP
B) Tehseen Poonawalla v. Union of India
C) Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. Union of India
D) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. Union of India
4. The Shreya Singhal v. Union of India judgment struck down which section of the IT Act as unconstitutional?
A) Section 43A
B) Section 66A
C) Section 69B
D) Section 72
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 66A
5. Which Supreme Court case held that the State has a constitutional duty to protect citizens from hate crimes and mob violence?
A) Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. Union of India
B) Ramji Lal Modi v. State of UP
C) Tehseen Poonawalla v. Union of India
D) Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Tehseen Poonawalla v. Union of India
6. Lab-grown diamonds are chemically identical to natural diamonds because both consist of:
A) Silicon atoms in a hexagonal lattice
B) Pure carbon atoms in a cubic crystal lattice
C) Carbon and nitrogen atoms in a tetragonal lattice
D) Graphite layers compressed under pressure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Pure carbon atoms in a cubic crystal lattice
7. In the CVD method of producing lab-grown diamonds, which two gases are ionised into plasma?
A) Oxygen and nitrogen
B) Helium and argon
C) Hydrogen and methane
D) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Hydrogen and methane
8. The HPHT method of producing lab-grown diamonds replicates conditions found in:
A) The ocean floor
B) Earth’s mantle
C) Interstellar gas clouds
D) Volcanic craters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Earth’s mantle
9. Lab-grown diamonds are NOT subject to which international certification scheme?
A) ISO Diamond Certification
B) Rapaport Grading System
C) Kimberley Process Certification Scheme
D) GIA Diamond Grading
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Kimberley Process Certification Scheme
10. India’s share of global LGD production in 2023 was approximately:
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15%
11. ICVD diamond reactors in India are mainly concentrated in which state?
A) Maharashtra
B) Rajasthan
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Gujarat
12. Nicotine pouches differ from traditional tobacco products because they contain:
A) Tobacco leaf with added chemicals
B) Synthetic nicotine without tobacco
C) Herbal extracts with no nicotine
D) Flavoured tobacco with reduced tar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Synthetic nicotine without tobacco
13. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to prohibit substances harmful to health?
A) Article 21
B) Article 38
C) Article 47
D) Article 51A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 47
14. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India prohibits nicotine as an ingredient in food
under which regulations?
A) Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2006
B) Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2011
C) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
D) COTPA, 2003
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2011
15. Which Act penalises supplying intoxicating substances to minors under Section 77? A) COTPA, 2003
B) Poisons Act, 1919
C) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
D) NDPS Act, 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
16. The Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0 (FFS 2.0) has a corpus of:
A) ₹5,000 crore
B) ₹7,500 crore
C) ₹10,000 crore
D) ₹15,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹10,000 crore
17. FFS 2.0 will be implemented (as fund manager) by which organisation?
A) NABARD
B) SIDBI
C) RBI
D) SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) SIDBI
18. In the Fund of Funds model, the government channels capital to SEBI-registered AIFs, which are
also called:
A) Angel Funds
B) Venture pools
C) Daughter funds
D) Seed trusts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Daughter funds
19. The original FFS 1.0 was launched in which year under the Startup India Action Plan?
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2016
20. India’s total basmati rice exports in FY 2024–25 reached approximately:
A) 3 million tonnes
B) 4.5 million tonnes
C) 6 million tonnes
D) 8 million tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 6 million tonnes
21. West Asia accounts for what percentage of India’s total basmati rice exports?
A) 30–40%
B) 45–55%
C) 60–70%
D) 75–85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 60–70%
22. Iran historically contributes what percentage of India’s basmati rice exports?
A) 5–10%
B) 15–20%
C) 25–30%
D) 35–40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15–20%
23. Due to conflict-related disruptions, container freight rates on the Asia–Middle East route surged
to approximately:
A) $800–$1,200 per FEU
B) $1,200–$1,800 per FEU
C) $2,000–$2,500 per FEU
D) $3,500–$4,500 per FEU
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) $3,500–$4,500 per FEU
24. The BioE3 Policy is led by which department?
A) Department of Pharmaceuticals
B) Department of Biotechnology
C) Department of Science and Technology
D) Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Department of Biotechnology
25. BioE3 aims to expand India’s bioeconomy to how much by 2030?
A) $150 billion
B) $200 billion
C) $250 billion
D) $300 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) $300 billion
26. Compared to conventional petrochemical products, bio-based chemicals have a carbon footprint
that is lower by:
A) 10–20%
B) 20–30%
C) 30–80%
D) 80–95%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 30–80%
27. Which type of enzyme hydrolyses fats?
A) Amylase
B) Protease
C) Lipase
D) Cellulase
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Lipase
28. HANUMAN stands for:
A) Habitat and Nature Unit for Management and Nurturing
B) Healing and Nurturing Units for Monitoring, Aid and Nursing of Wildlife
C) Human–Animal Network for Unified Management and Nature
D) Holistic Animal Nurturing and Management Network
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Healing and Nurturing Units for Monitoring, Aid and Nursing of Wildlife
29. Project HANUMAN was launched by which state government on World Wildlife Day (3 March)?
A) Telangana
B) Karnataka
C) Odisha
D) Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Andhra Pradesh
30. Village-level volunteer teams formed under Project HANUMAN are called:
A) Rakshak Teams
B) Vajra Teams
C) Vanya Teams
D) Prahari Teams
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Vajra Teams
31. Karnataka’s social media ban for children under 16 makes it which Indian state to propose such a restriction?
A) Second
B) Third
C) First
D) Fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) First
32. Which Entry of the Union List assigns internet and broadcasting regulation to the Central Government?
A) Entry 13
B) Entry 25
C) Entry 31
D) Entry 44
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Entry 31
33. Which country was the first to implement a nationwide social media ban for children under 16?
A) United Kingdom
B) United States
C) France
D) Australia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Australia
34. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, a ‘child’ is defined as any individual below:
A) 13 years
B) 16 years
C) 18 years
D) 21 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 18 years
35. Which Section of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 mandates verifiable parental consent
before processing minors’ data?
A) Section 5
B) Section 9
C) Section 12
D) Section 17
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 9
36. Violations of children’s data protection provisions under DPDPA, 2023 can attract penalties up to:
A) ₹50 crore
B) ₹100 crore
C) ₹150 crore
D) ₹200 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) ₹200 crore
37. The State of India’s Environment report is published annually by:
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
C) NITI Aayog
D) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
38. The Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) was established in:
A) 1972
B) 1976
C) 1980
D) 1984
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1980
39. According to the State of India’s Environment 2026 report, India experienced extreme weather events on what percentage of days in 2025?
A) 75%
B) 88%
C) 95%
D) 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 99%
40. India’s share of global LGD production in 2023 was approximately:
A) 1,982
B) 2,754
C) 4,419
D) 5,860
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 4,419
41. Which Indian state recorded the highest number of extreme weather days as per the 2026 report?
A) Uttarakhand
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Assam
D) Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Himachal Pradesh
42. The report states that only 15% of India’s population lives within how many km of an air-quality monitoring station?
A) 5 km
B) 10 km
C) 15 km
D) 20 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10 km
43. Approximately how many people live within tiger landscapes across 20 Indian states, per the 2026 report?
A) 20 million
B) 40 million
C) 60 million
D) 80 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60 million
44. Denmark was certified by WHO as the first EU country to eliminate mother-to-child transmission (MTCT) of:
A) HIV and Hepatitis B
B) HIV and Syphilis
C) Syphilis and Hepatitis C
D) HIV and Tuberculosis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) HIV and Syphilis
45. Which country was the FIRST globally to achieve WHO certification for eliminating MTCT of HIV and syphilis?
A) Denmark
B) Thailand
C) Cuba
D) Belarus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Cuba
46. Which country achieved ‘triple elimination’ (HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B) in 2025?
A) Cuba
B) Thailand
C) Sri Lanka
D) Maldives
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Maldives
47. HIV primarily attacks which cells of the immune system?
A) B-lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells)
D) Natural killer cells
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells)
48. Syphilis is caused by which bacterium?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Treponema pallidum
49. The standard treatment for syphilis is injection of:
A) Amoxicillin
B) Benzathine Penicillin G
C) Azithromycin
D) Doxycycline
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Benzathine Penicillin G
50. India has the second-largest HIV-positive population globally after:
A) Nigeria
B) Kenya
C) Ethiopia
D) South Africa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) South Africa
51. ASMITA stands for:
A) Achieving Sports Milestone by Inspiring Women Through Action
B) Advancing Sports Motivation by Integrating Women Through Athletics
C) Athletic Sports Mission Inspiring Talented Athletes
D) Association for Sports Mobilisation and Integrated Training in Athletics
Show Answer
Correct Answer : A) Achieving Sports Milestone by Inspiring Women Through Action
52. The ASMITA Athletics League 2026 was conducted across how many locations in India?
A) 100
B) 150
C) 200
D) 250
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 250
53. The ASMITA Initiative was launched in which year?
A) 2016
B) 2019
C) 2021
D) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer :C) 2021
54. Approximately how many women athletes have participated in ASMITA leagues so far?
A) 1 lakh
B) 2 lakh
C) 3 lakh
D) 5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3 lakh
55. The Three Seas Initiative (3SI) was initiated in 2016 by which two countries?
A) Germany and Austria
B) Poland and Croatia
C) Hungary and Romania
D) Czech Republic and Slovakia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Poland and Croatia
56. How many EU member countries are part of the Three Seas Initiative?
A) 9
B) 11
C) 13
D) 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 13
57. India sees the Three Seas Initiative as a northern extension of which corridor?
A) International North–South Transport Corridor
B) India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor
C) Trans-Caspian International Trade Route
D) Chabahar–Ashgabat–Tehran Corridor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor
58. The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) was established in:
A) 1942
B) 1946
C) 1950
D) 1956
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1946
59. The CSW functions under which UN body?
A) UN General Assembly
B) UN Security Council
C) UN Economic and Social Council
D) UN Human Rights Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) UN Economic and Social Council
60. TRP ratings for TV channels in India are measured and released by:
A) TRAI
B) MIB
C) BARC India
D) Doordarshan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) BARC India—
61. The Rastriya Swatantra Party (RSP) in Nepal’s 2026 elections is led by:
A) K.P. Sharma Oli
B) Pushpa Kamal Dahal
C) Balendra Shah
D) Sher Bahadur Deuba
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Balendra Shah
62. The Madhesh region in Nepal lies in the Terai plains bordering which Indian state?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) West Bengal
C) Bihar
D) Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Bihar
63. The 1950 India–Nepal Treaty of Peace and Friendship provides for open border movement across
a border of approximately:
A) 1,200 km
B) 1,400 km
C) 1,751 km
D) 2,100 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1,751 km
64. India’s bilateral trade with Nepal reached how much in FY 2024–25?
A) $4.2 billion
B) $6.7 billion
C) $8.5 billion
D) $11.3 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $8.5 billion
65. The Motihari–Amlekhgunj pipeline is significant as:
A) South Asia’s first cross-border gas pipeline
B) South Asia’s first cross-border petroleum pipeline
C) South Asia’s longest natural gas pipeline
D) India’s first underground pipeline to Nepal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) South Asia’s first cross-border petroleum pipeline
66. India’s long-term power trade agreement commits to importing how much hydropower from Nepal?
A) 5,000 MW
B) 7,500 MW
C) 10,000 MW
D) 15,000 MW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 10,000 MW
67. The government invoked emergency powers to ensure LPG availability under which Act?
A) Petroleum Act, 1934
B) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
C) Energy Conservation Act, 2001
D) Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
68. Approximately what percentage of India’s LPG requirement is imported?
A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 60%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60%
69. Qatar supplies approximately what share of India’s LNG imports?
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 50%
70. LNG is natural gas primarily composed of methane, cooled to approximately what temperature to become liquid?
A) –80°C
B) –120°C
C) –160°C
D) –200°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) –160°C
71. The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020 deregulated which of the following commodities (in normal times)?
A) Crude oil and natural gas
B) Cereals, pulses, onions, and potatoes
C) Medicines and medical devices
D) Coal and fertilisers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Cereals, pulses, onions, and potatoes
72. The doctrine from which the Supreme Leader of Iran derives authority is called:
A) Shura-e-Islami
B) Wilayat al-Faqih (Velayat-e-Faqih)
C) Fatwa-e-Rahbar
D) Majles-e-Islami
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Wilayat al-Faqih (Velayat-e-Faqih)
73. Iran’s Supreme Leader is elected by which body?
A) Iranian Parliament (Majlis)
B) Guardian Council
C) Assembly of Experts
D) Expediency Discernment Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Assembly of Experts
74. The Assembly of Experts consists of how many clerical members?
A) 44
B) 66
C) 88
D) 110
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 88
75. The 1989 constitutional amendment in Iran relaxed the requirement that the Supreme Leader must be a:
A) Mufti
B) Marja
C) Qadi
D) Imam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Marja
76. A switch auction by the RBI involves the government:
A) Selling new bonds to raise fresh capital
B) Buying back near-maturity bonds and issuing new long-term bonds
C) Converting foreign debt into domestic securities
D) Auctioning state development loans to commercial banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Buying back near-maturity bonds and issuing new long-term bonds
77. Government Securities are called ‘gilt-edged securities’ because they carry:
A) Gold backing from RBI reserves
B) Sovereign guarantee implying near-zero default risk
C) Fixed returns regardless of market conditions
D) Priority claim over corporate assets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sovereign guarantee implying near-zero default risk
78. Under the RBI Retail Direct Scheme (2021), individual investors open which type of account?
A) Demat Gilt Account
B) Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) Account
C) Public Debt Account
D) Sovereign Bond Savings Account
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) Account
79. Treasury Bills are issued with maturities of:
A) 30, 60, and 90 days
B) 91, 182, and 364 days
C) 6 months, 1 year, and 2 years
D) 1, 3, and 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 91, 182, and 364 days
80. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 provides for what percentage of reservation for women in legislatures?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 33%
D) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 33%
81. Under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–NRLM, how many women have been mobilised into Self-Help Groups?
A) 5 crore
B) 7 crore
C) 10 crore
D) 15 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 10 crore
82. The NaMo Drone Didi Scheme provides agricultural drones to 15,000 SHGs with what subsidy?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 80%
83. India’s Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) has been reduced from 130 to:
A) 110
B) 100
C) 88
D) 75
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 88
84. A ‘War of Attrition’ aims to achieve victory by:
A) Rapid decisive offensive strikes
B) Naval blockades and air superiority
C) Gradually exhausting the opponent’s resources and morale
D) Diplomatic isolation of the enemy state
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Gradually exhausting the opponent’s resources and morale
85. The concept of attrition warfare became widely associated with which historical conflict?
A) Napoleonic Wars
B) World War I trench warfare
C) World War II Blitzkrieg
D) Korean War
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) World War I trench warfare
86. Divyang Sahara Yojana focuses on strengthening production of assistive devices through which
corporation?
A) BHEL
B) Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India
C) HLL Lifecare Limited
D) BEML Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India
87. India sees the Three Seas Initiative as a northern extension of which corridor?
A) UMANG Portal
B) Skill India Portal
C) PM-DAKSH Portal
D) DigiLocker Portal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) PM-DAKSH Portal
28. The Proba-3 mission was launched by ISRO aboard which rocket?
A) GSLV Mk-III
B) SSLV
C) PSLV-C59
D) LVM3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) PSLV-C59
89. ESA’s FLEX mission aims to measure what on Earth?
A) Ocean salinity levels
B) Vegetation fluorescence to observe photosynthesis
C) Arctic ice sheet thickness
D) Atmospheric CO2 concentration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Vegetation fluorescence to observe photosynthesis
90. Which state recorded the highest highway green cover in the first NH-GCI Annual Report (2025–26)?
A) Gujarat
B) Telangana
C) Assam
D) Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Assam
91. HALEU stands for:
A) High-Activity Low-Emission Uranium
B) High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium
C) Highly Activated Low-Energy Uranium
D) Hybrid Advanced Low-Enrichment Uranium
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium
92. HALEU fuel uses uranium enriched to what percentage of U-235?
A) 1–5%
B) 5–20%
C) 20–40%
D) 40–60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5–20%
93. According to BARC, adding thorium to existing PHWRs makes shutdown rods approximately how much less effective?
A) 10%
B) 16%
C) 26%
D) 35%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 26%
94. In India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme, Stage I uses which type of reactor?
A) Fast Breeder Reactors
B) Pressurised Water Reactors
C) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
D) Thorium Molten Salt Reactors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
95. India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme was proposed by:
A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
B) Vikram Sarabhai
C) Homi Jehangir Bhabha
D) Raja Ramanna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Homi Jehangir Bhabha
96. In Stage III of India’s nuclear programme, thorium-232 is used to produce which fuel?
A) Plutonium-239
B) Uranium-235
C) Uranium-233
D) Neptunium-237
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Uranium-233
97. The constitutional basis for removal of the Chief Election Commissioner is derived from which Article?
A) Article 148
B) Article 312
C) Article 324(5)
D) Article 356
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 324(5)
98. A removal motion against the CEC in the Lok Sabha requires the support of at least how many members?
A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 100
99. The inquiry committee constituted for CEC removal consists of how many members?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Seven
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Three
100. For Parliament to pass a CEC removal motion, which special majority is required?
A) Simple majority in both Houses
B) Two-thirds majority in Rajya Sabha only
C) Majority of total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting
D) Three-fourths of total membership of both Houses
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Majority of total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting
101. Other Election Commissioners (not the CEC) can be removed by the President only on the recommendation of:
A) The Prime Minister
B) The Chief Election Commissioner
C) The Supreme Court
D) The Parliament
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The Chief Election Commissioner
102. Jal Jeevan Mission was launched in which year?
A) 2016
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2019
103. The water supply standard under JJM is how many litres per capita per day?
A) 35 lpcd
B) 45 lpcd
C) 55 lpcd
D) 70 lpcd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 55 lpcd
104. The new digital platform under JJM 2.0 to map drinking water infrastructure is called:
A) Jal Shakti Portal
B) Sujalam Bharat
C) HarGharJal App
D) JalNet Platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Sujalam Bharat
105. The ‘Jal Arpan’ initiative under JJM 2.0 involves formal handover of water infrastructure to:
A) State Governments and District Collectors
B) Gram Panchayats and Village Water Committees (Paani Samitis)
C) NITI Aayog and Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Urban Local Bodies and Water Boards
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Gram Panchayats and Village Water Committees (Paani Samitis)
106. India’s tightened FDI policy for land-bordering countries was first introduced in which year?
A) 2018
B) 2019
C) 2020
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2020
107. Under the revised FDI policy, investments up to what percentage with non-controlling ownershipfrom LBCs can use the automatic route?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 26%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10%
108. Investment proposals from land-bordering countries requiring government approval must now be processed within:
A) 30 days
B) 45 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 60 days
109. Which of the following is NOT listed as a land-bordering country under India’s LBC FDI policy?
A) Nepal
B) Bangladesh
C) Sri Lanka
D) Afghanistan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sri Lanka
110. India is currently the how-many-th largest exporter of agricultural produce globally?
A) 4th
B) 5th
C) 7th
D) 9th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 7th
111. India’s annual agri-food exports have reached approximately:
A) ₹2 lakh crore
B) ₹3.5 lakh crore
C) ₹5 lakh crore
D) ₹7 lakh crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) ₹5 lakh crore
112. MPEDA (Marine Products Export Development Authority) was established in:
A) 1965
B) 1972
C) 1980
D) 1991
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1972
113. According to the SIPRI report ‘Trends in International Arms Transfers, 2025’, India ranked as the:
A) Largest arms importer
B) Second-largest arms importer
C) Third-largest arms importer
D) Fourth-largest arms importer
Show Answer
Correct Answer : B) Second-largest arms importer
114. SIPRI was established in which year and is headquartered in:
A) 1956, Geneva
B) 1960, Brussels
C) 1966, Stockholm
D) 1970, Vienna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1966, Stockholm
115. The largest arms exporter globally according to the 2025 SIPRI report is:
A) Russia
B) France
C) Germany
D) United States
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) United States
116. Russia’s share of global arms exports declined by how much according to SIPRI 2025?
A) 24%
B) 43%
C) 64%
D) 78%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 64%
117. The B28 bullet trainsets for India’s high-speed rail project are being developed by:
A) BEML, Bengaluru
B) BHEL, Haridwar
C) Rail Vikas Nigam, Delhi
D) Tata Technologies, Pune
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) BEML, Bengaluru
118. The Mumbai–Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail Corridor has a total length of approximately:
A) 350 km
B) 430 km
C) 508 km
D) 620 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 508 km
119. The B28 trainsets will use which safety signalling system?1
A) Communications-Based Train Control (CBTC)
B) European Train Control System Level-2 (ETCS-2)
C) Japanese ATC-NS System
D) Kavach Automatic Train Protection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) European Train Control System Level-2 (ETCS-2)
120. India eliminated leprosy as a public health problem in which year (prevalence below 1 per 10,000)?
A) 1999
B) 2002
C) 2005
D) 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2005
121. The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) is a statutory body established under which Act?
A) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
B) Dam Safety Act, 2021
C) National Water Policy Act, 2012
D) River Boards Act, 1956
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dam Safety Act, 2021
122. The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) functions under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) Ministry of Water Resources
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Power
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
123. The headquarters of the National Dam Safety Authority is located in:
A) Mumbai
B) Hyderabad
C) Bhopal
D) New Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) New Delhi
124. The NDSA is led by a Chairman assisted by how many members?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Seven
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Five
125. Which body is responsible for formulating national dam safety policies and standards?
A) National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)
B) National Committee on Dam Safety (NCDS)
C) Central Water Commission
D) State Dam Safety Organisations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Committee on Dam Safety (NCDS)
126. The National Committee on Dam Safety (NCDS) is chaired by the Chairman of which body?
A) NDSA
B) Ministry of Jal Shakti
C) Central Water Commission (CWC)
D) National Water Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Central Water Commission (CWC)
127. NETRA, launched by NDSA, is best described as:
A) A satellite imagery platform for river monitoring
B) An AI-enabled platform for dam safety guidelines and technical resources
C) A real-time flood early warning system
D) A GIS mapping tool for reservoir water levels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An AI-enabled platform for dam safety guidelines and technical resources
128. The Rashtriya Bandh Suraksha Darpan (RBSD) platform was developed by which organisation?
A) ISRO
B) National Informatics Centre
C) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
D) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
129. The RBSD platform helps analyse which of the following?
A) Groundwater depletion trends
B) Dam-break scenarios and downstream flood impacts
C) Irrigation canal water distribution
D) Hydropower generation efficiency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Dam-break scenarios and downstream flood impacts
130. Under the Dam Safety Act, 2021, a ‘specified dam’ includes dams higher than:
A) 5 metres
B) 10 metres
C) 15 metres
D) 20 metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 15 metres
131. The NDSA acts as the State Dam Safety Organisation (SDSO) for which of the following?
A) All dams above 30 metres in height
B) Dams spanning two or more states and centrally owned dams
C) Dams located in flood-prone districts only
D) Dams built before 1970
Show Answer
Correct Answer:B) Dams spanning two or more states and centrally owned dams
132. The NDSA resolves disputes between which entities?
A) State governments and dam owners
B) State Dam Safety Organisations (SDSOs) and between an SDSO and a dam owner
C) The Central Water Commission and state irrigation departments
D) Private dam operators and the Ministry of Jal Shakti
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State Dam Safety Organisations (SDSOs) and between an SDSO and a dam owner
133. Which of the following functions does the NDSA NOT perform?
A) Accrediting agencies for dam construction and inspection
B) Regulating and monitoring safety of large dams
C) Directly constructing new dams across India
D) Overseeing inter-state dams
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Directly constructing new dams across India
134. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) comprises how many non-EU member countries?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Four
135. Which of the following is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
A) Switzerland
B) Norway
C) Denmark
D) Iceland
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Denmark
136. Which four countries form the EFTA?
A) Sweden, Denmark, Finland, Norway
B) Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Liechtenstein
C) Austria, Switzerland, Belgium, Norway
D) Iceland, Denmark, Luxembourg, Norway
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Liechtenstein
137. The India–EFTA TEPA entered into force on:
A) 1 January 2025
B) 1 March 2025
C) 1 October 2025
D) 1 April 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1 October 2025
138. EFTA countries committed to how much FDI in India over 15 years under the TEPA?
A) $50 billion
B) $75 billion
C) $100 billion
D) $150 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) $100 billion
139. The EFTA investment commitment under TEPA is expected to generate approximately how many direct jobs?
A) 5 lakh
B) 10 lakh (1 million)
C) 25 lakh
D) 50 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10 lakh (1 million)
140. Under the India–EFTA TEPA, tariffs will be eliminated on what percentage of product categories for Indian exports?
A) 75.5%
B) 82.7%
C) 92.2%
D) 99.6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 92.2%
141. The 92.2% tariff elimination under TEPA covers what percentage of India’s actual exports to
EFTA?
A) 75%
B) 85%
C) 92%
D) 99.6%
Show Answer
Correct Answer : D) 99.6%
142. India will reduce tariffs on what percentage of its tariff lines under the TEPA?
A) 65.4%
B) 72.3%
C) 82.7%
D) 92.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 82.7%
143. Which of the following sectors was EXCLUDED from India’s tariff concessions under the TEPA?
A) Pharmaceuticals
B) Textiles
C) Dairy products
D) Gems and jewellery
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) Dairy products
144. The safeguard clause in the India–EFTA TEPA allows India to withdraw concessions if EFTA countries fail to fulfil:
A) The Mutual Recognition Agreement for professionals
B) The $100 billion FDI commitment
C) Tariff elimination on Indian agricultural goods
D) Market access commitments in services
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) The $100 billion FDI commitment
145. Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) under the TEPA will particularly benefit which Indian professionals?
A) Engineers and Lawyers
B) Nurses and Accountants
C) Teachers and Architects
D) Doctors and IT professionals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Nurses and Accountants
146. The India–EFTA Desk established under the TEPA serves as:
A) A customs inspection authority for bilateral trade
B) A single-window platform to facilitate EFTA investments in India
C) A dispute resolution tribunal for trade conflicts
D) A joint chamber of commerce for bilateral business
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A single-window platform to facilitate EFTA investments in India
147. Which EFTA country announced a $30 million investment in India’s fisheries sector under the TEPA?
A) Switzerland
B) Norway
C) Liechtenstein
D) Iceland
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Iceland
148. State Dam Safety Organisations (SDSOs) are bodies established by:
A) The Central Government under NDSA guidelines
B) State governments to inspect, monitor, and ensure dam safety compliance
C) The National Committee on Dam Safety
D) The Central Water Commission directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State governments to inspect, monitor, and ensure dam safety compliance
149. Which of the following best describes the TEPA’s approach to sensitive agricultural sectors like dairy?
A) Full tariff elimination over 10 years
B) Partial tariff reduction of 50%
C) Excluded from India’s tariff concessions
D) Subject to import quotas only
Show Answer
Correct Answer:C) Excluded from India’s tariff concessions
150. The India–EFTA TEPA is significant because EFTA is distinct from the EU in that its four members:
A) Use the Euro as their common currency
B) Are part of the EU customs union
C) Are non-European Union countries promoting free trade independently
D) Share a common defence treaty with NATO only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Are non-European Union countries promoting free trade independently
151. GeodCon-26 is India’s first national conference dedicated to which field?
A) Remote sensing and satellite imagery
B) Geodesy and geospatial science
C) Urban planning and smart cities
D) Climate modelling and meteorology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Geodesy and geospatial science
152. GeodCon-26 was held at which institution in New Delhi?
A) India International Centre
B) Indian National Science Academy (INSA)
C) NITI Aayog headquarters
D) National Physical Laboratory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian National Science Academy (INSA)
153. Geodesy is the scientific study of which of the following?
A) Ocean currents and marine ecosystems
B) Atmospheric composition and weather patterns
C) Earth’s shape, size, gravitational field, and precise positioning
D) Rock formations and tectonic plate movements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Earth’s shape, size, gravitational field, and precise positioning
154. The National Geospatial Policy 2022 aims primarily to:
A) Restrict foreign access to India’s satellite imagery
B) Democratise access to geospatial data for government, private sector, and citizens
C) Centralise all mapping activities under the Survey of India
D) Launch India’s own GPS satellite constellation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Democratise access to geospatial data for government, private sector, and citizens
155. The SVAMITVA Scheme uses which technologies to provide rural property records?
A) Sonar mapping and underwater surveys
B) Ground-penetrating radar and seismic sensors
C) Drone surveys and GIS mapping
D) Satellite thermal imaging and LiDAR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Drone surveys and GIS mapping
156. BISAG-N stands for:
A) Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-Informatics
B) Bharat Institute of Satellite Applications and Geospatial Navigation
C) Bureau of Indian Space and Geospatial Analytics
D) Bharat Integrated Satellite and Geo-Informatics Network
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-Informatics
157. PM-KISAN is classified as which type of scheme?
A) Centrally Sponsored Scheme
B) Central Sector Scheme
C) State Sector Scheme
D) Externally Aided Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Central Sector Scheme
158. Under PM-KISAN, eligible farmers receive annual financial assistance of:
A) ₹2,000
B) ₹4,000
C) ₹6,000
D) ₹8,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹6,000
159. PM-KISAN transfers financial assistance in how many instalments per year?
A) Two instalments of ₹3,000 each
B) Three instalments of ₹2,000 each
C) Four instalments of ₹1,500 each
D) Six instalments of ₹1,000 each
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Three instalments of ₹2,000 each
160. The AI-based multilingual chatbot under PM-KISAN that assists farmers with scheme information and grievance redressal is called:
A) PM-KISAN Bot
B) Kisan e-Mitra
C) Kisan Sathi
D) Fasal Mitra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Kisan e-Mitra
161. Which category of persons is EXCLUDED from PM-KISAN benefits?
A) Women farmers with land up to 2 hectares
B) Tribal farmers in forest areas
C) Income tax payers and registered professionals like doctors and engineers
D) Sharecroppers and tenant farmers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Income tax payers and registered professionals like doctors and engineers
162. Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 empowers which U.S. body to investigate unfair trade practices?
A) U.S. Department of Commerce
B) U.S. Department of the Treasury
C) Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)
D) U.S. International Trade Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)
163. India’s trade surplus with the United States in 2025 was approximately:
C) $58 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Directly constructing new dams across India
164. The USTR’s Section 301 investigation targets India primarily due to alleged excess capacity in which sectors?
A) Pharmaceuticals, textiles, and IT services
B) Solar modules, petrochemicals, and steel
C) Automobiles, defence equipment, and chemicals
D) Agriculture, dairy, and processed foods
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Solar modules, petrochemicals, and steel
165. The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) was enacted in which year?
A) 1962
B) 1970
C) 1977
D) 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1977
166. IEEPA allows the U.S. President to regulate international economic transactions during:
A) Any trade deficit situation
B) A declared national emergency
C) Congressional approval of new tariffs
D) WTO dispute resolution proceedings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) A declared national emergency
167. India’s first ‘Digital Twin’ initiative for a major port was launched at which port?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Mumbai
B) Chennai Port
C) V.O. Chidambaranar Port, Thoothukudi
D) Visakhapatnam Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) V.O. Chidambaranar Port, Thoothukudi
168. V.O. Chidambaranar Port is located on which coast and water body?
A) Malabar Coast, Arabian Sea
B) Coromandel Coast, Gulf of Mannar
C) Konkan Coast, Lakshadweep Sea
D) Andhra Coast, Bay of Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Coromandel Coast, Gulf of Mannar
169. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai is remembered for founding which enterprise in 1906?
A) Indian National Shipping Corporation
B) Bombay Burmah Trading Corporation
C) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
D) Indian Merchant Shipping Company
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
170. Under which national mission is VOC Port being developed as a Green Hydrogen Hub?
A) National Solar Mission
B) National Green Hydrogen Mission
C) PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan
D) Sagarmala Programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Green Hydrogen Mission
171. The EEZ Fisheries Rules, 2025 have been issued under which Act?
A) Marine Fisheries (Regulation) Act, 1981
B) Indian Fisheries Act, 1897
C) Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, EEZ and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976
D) Maritime Zones of India Act, 2002
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, EEZ and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976
172. Under the EEZ Fisheries Rules, 2025, which vessels must obtain an access pass to operate in India’s EEZ?
A) All fishing boats regardless of size
B) Mechanised fishing vessels and motorised boats of 24 metres or more
C) Foreign fishing vessels only
D) Vessels operating beyond 100 nautical miles from shore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mechanised fishing vessels and motorised boats of 24 metres or more
173. India’s Exclusive Economic Zone covers approximately how much maritime area?
A) 1.2 million sq km
B) 1.8 million sq km
C) 2.4 million sq km
D) 3.1 million sq km
Show Answer
Correct Answer : C) 2.4 million sq km
174. The ReALCraft Portal is used for:
A) Real-time tracking of fish catch volumes
B) Registration and licensing of fishing vessels
C) Online sale of fishing permits to traders
D) Satellite monitoring of illegal fishing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Registration and licensing of fishing vessels
175. Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) typically produce electricity up to what capacity?
A) 100 MWe
B) 200 MWe
C) 300 MWe
D) 500 MWe
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 300 MWe
176. The Bharat SMR (BSMR-200) is based on which reactor technology?
A) Pressurised Water Reactor (PWR)
B) Boiling Water Reactor (BWR)
C) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)
D) Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)
177. The High-Temperature Gas-Cooled Reactor (HTGCR) being developed by India will be built at which facility?
A) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
B) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
C) BARC facility in Visakhapatnam
D) Kaiga Generating Station
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) BARC facility in Visakhapatnam
178. As of early 2026, which two countries operate commercial SMRs?
A) USA and France
B) Russia and China
C) Canada and South Korea
D) Japan and UK
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Russia and China
179. India is the how-many-th largest oil consumer in the world?
A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Third
180. The Air Droppable Container ADC-150 was coordinated by which laboratory located in Visakhapatnam?
A) Defence Electronics Research Laboratory (DLRL)
B) Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL)
C) Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL)
D) Research and Development Establishment (Engineers)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL)
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