Practice the December 2025 3rd Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the third week of December 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 15 to 21 December features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
3rd Week of December 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Which census will the Census of India 2027 be since the beginning of census operations in India?
A) 14th Census
B) 15th Census
C) 16th Census
D) 17th Census
Show Answer
Answer: C) 16th Census
2. When is Phase I (House Listing and Housing Census) of Census 2027 scheduled?
A) February 2027
B) April-September 2026
C) January-March 2026
D) October-December 2026
Show Answer
Answer: B) April-September 2026
3. What unique feature makes Census 2027 different from previous censuses?
A) It will include international migrants
B) It will be the first-ever digital census
C) It will be conducted every 5 years
D) It will exclude rural areas
Show Answer
Answer: B) It will be the first-ever digital census
4. Under which Act is the Census of India governed?
A) Census Act, 1948
B) Census Act, 1951
C) Census Act, 1947
D) Census Act, 1950
Show Answer
Answer: A) Census Act, 1948
5. When was the first census conducted in India?
A) 1857
B) 1872
C) 1881
D) 1901
Show Answer
Answer: B) 1872
6. At which UN forum was India’s resolution on wildfire management adopted?
A) UNEA-6
B) UNEA-7
C) UNEA-8
D) COP28
Show Answer
Answer: B) UNEA-7
7. According to UNEP’s report “Spreading Like Wildfire”, by what percentage could wildfire incidents rise by 2100?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 50%
8. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)?
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) New York, USA
C) Nairobi, Kenya
D) Vienna, Austria
Show Answer
Answer: C) Nairobi, Kenya
9. According to India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, what percentage of Indian forests are prone to frequent fires?
A) Over 26%
B) Over 36%
C) Over 46%
D) Over 56%
Show Answer
Answer: B) Over 36%
10. When was UNEA established?
A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2012
D) 2013
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2012
11. What does CoalSETU stand for?
A) Coal Supply for Efficient Trade Utilisation
B) Coal Linkage for Seamless, Efficient & Transparent Utilisation
C) Coal System for Energy Transfer and Utilisation
D) Coal Strategy for Efficient Technical Usage
Show Answer
Answer: B) Policy for Auction of Coal Linkage for Seamless, Efficient & Transparent Utilisation
12. Which type of coal is excluded from the CoalSETU auction window?
A) Bituminous coal
B) Anthracite coal
C) Coking coal
D) Lignite coal
Show Answer
Answer: C) Coking coal
13. Who is NOT permitted to bid under the CoalSETU Policy?
A) Industrial consumers
B) Traders
C) Export companies
D) Domestic coal users
Show Answer
Answer: B) Traders
14. To which deity is the Preah Vihear Temple dedicated?
A) Lord Vishnu
B) Lord Shiva
C) Lord Buddha
D) Lord Brahma
Show Answer
Answer: B) Lord Shiva
15. In which country is the Preah Vihear Temple located?
A) Thailand
B) Vietnam
C) Cambodia
D) Laos
Show Answer
Answer: C) Cambodia
16. During whose reign was the construction of Preah Vihear Temple begun?
A) King Suryavarman II
B) King Jayavarman VII
C) King Yashovarman I
D) King Indravarman I
Show Answer
Answer: C) King Yashovarman I
17. During which period did King Yashovarman I rule?
A) 789-810 CE
B) 889-910 CE
C) 989-1010 CE
D) 1089-1110 CE
Show Answer
Answer: B) 889-910 CE
18. What is the insurance coverage amount under PMGKY for health workers who died during COVID-19 duties?
A) ₹25 lakh
B) ₹40 lakh
C) ₹50 lakh
D) ₹75 lakh
Show Answer
Answer: C) ₹50 lakh
19. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the PMGKY Insurance Scheme?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
20. What is the primary focus of the Pax Silica Initiative?
A) Renewable energy development
B) Silicon supply chain security
C) Agricultural trade
D) Military cooperation
Show Answer
Answer: B) Building a secure, resilient and innovation-driven silicon supply chain
21. Which country is leading the Pax Silica Initiative?
A) China
B) Japan
C) United States
D) European Union
Show Answer
Answer: C) United States
22. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of Pax Silica?
A) Japan
B) India
C) Australia
D) Singapore
Show Answer
Answer: B) India
23. In which state is the National Makhana Board located?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) West Bengal
C) Bihar
D) Odisha
Show Answer
Answer: C) Bihar
24. What is the total budget approved for the Central Sector Scheme by the National Makhana Board?
A) ₹376 crore
B) ₹476 crore
C) ₹576 crore
D) ₹676 crore
Show Answer
Answer: B) ₹476 crore
25. Under which ministry does the National Makhana Board operate?
A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
C) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare
26. Where is the headquarters of IFAD located?
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) Rome, Italy
C) Paris, France
D) New York, USA
Show Answer
Answer: B) Rome, Italy
27. When was IFAD established?
A) 1975
B) 1976
C) 1977
D) 1978
Show Answer
Answer: C) 1977
28. What is the status of IFAD?
A) NGO and development agency
B) UN specialized agency and international financial institution
C) Regional development bank
D) Bilateral aid organization
Show Answer
Answer: B) UN specialized agency and international financial institution
29. What does MAVEN stand for?
A) Mars Atmospheric and Volatile Exploration Network
B) Mars Atmosphere and Volatile EvolutioN
C) Mars Advanced Vehicle for Exploration
D) Mars Atmospheric Vehicle and Explorer
Show Answer
Answer: B) Mars Atmosphere and Volatile EvolutioN
30. In which year was the MAVEN spacecraft launched?
A) 2011
B) 2012
C) 2013
D) 2014
Show Answer
Answer: C) 2013
31. What percentage of India’s trade by volume passes through the Indian Ocean?
A) 85%
B) 90%
C) 95%
D) 98%
Show Answer
Answer: C) 95%
32. What is the size of India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
A) ~1.02 million sq. km
B) ~2.02 million sq. km
C) ~3.02 million sq. km
D) ~4.02 million sq. km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ~2.02 million sq. km
33. What is the target amount for the One Ocean Partnership launched at COP30?
A) $10 billion by 2030
B) $15 billion by 2030
C) $20 billion by 2030
D) $25 billion by 2030
Show Answer
Answer: : C) $20 billion by 2030
34. What was India’s marine fisheries production in 2023-24?
A) 34.95 lakh tonnes
B) 44.95 lakh tonnes
C) 54.95 lakh tonnes
D) 64.95 lakh tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 44.95 lakh tonnes
35. What is India’s global ranking in methane emissions?
A) First-largest
B) Second-largest
C) Third-largest
D) Fourth-largest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Third-largest
36. What percentage of India’s methane emissions originate from the waste sector?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 15%
37. How many times more potent is methane than CO₂ over a 20-year period?
A) 64 times
B) 74 times
C) 84 times
D) 94 times
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 84 times
38. Which of the following is NOT a methane hotspot identified by ISRO in 2023?
A) Pirana, Gujarat
B) Deonar, Maharashtra
C) Ghazipur, Delhi
D) Brahmapuram, Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Brahmapuram, Kerala
39. What is the approximate atmospheric lifespan of methane?
A) ~8 years
B) ~10 years
C) ~12 years
D) ~15 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~12 years
40. How many disputes were resolved in the 4th National Lok Adalat of 2025?
A) 1.59 crore
B) 2.59 crore
C) 3.59 crore
D) 4.59 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2.59 crore
41. Under which Act are Lok Adalats established?
A) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1985
B) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
C) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1989
D) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1991
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
42. What is the monetary jurisdiction of Permanent Lok Adalat?
A) Up to ₹50 lakh
B) Up to ₹75 lakh
C) Up to ₹1 crore
D) Up to ₹2 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Up to ₹1 crore
43. Who is the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA?
A) Prime Minister of India
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Attorney General of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Chief Justice of India
44. Which type of case is excluded from Lok Adalat jurisdiction?
A) Property disputes
B) Non-compoundable criminal offences
C) Cheque bounce cases
D) Motor accident claims
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Non-compoundable criminal offences
45. How many Ramsar sites does India have after the addition of two new wetlands?
A) 94
B) 95
C) 96
D) 97
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 96
46. In which district of Rajasthan is Siliserh Lake located?
A) Jaipur
B) Udaipur
C) Alwar
D) Jodhpur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Alwar
47. When was Siliserh Lake created?
A) 1825 CE
B) 1835 CE
C) 1845 CE
D) 1855 CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1845 CE
48. In which state is Kopra Reservoir located?
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Odisha
D) Jharkhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Chhattisgarh
49. In which year was the Ramsar Convention adopted?
A) 1969
B) 1970
C) 1971
D) 1972
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1971
50. What is the parent body of the Geminid meteor shower?
A) Halley’s Comet
B) 3200 Phaethon
C) Comet Swift-Tuttle
D) 55P/Tempel-Tuttle
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 3200 Phaethon
51. What is the maximum number of meteors per hour visible during Geminid peak?
A) ~80
B) ~100
C) ~120
D) ~150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~120
52. What is a meteorite?
A) An object in space
B) Light phenomenon in atmosphere
C) Fragment that reaches the ground
D) A type of asteroid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Fragment that reaches the ground
53. From which district is Ponduru Khadi?
A) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
B) Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh
C) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh
D) Anantapur, Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh
54. Under which Act is GI registration governed in India?
A) Geographical Indications Act, 1997
B) Geographical Indications Act, 1998
C) Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999
D) Geographical Indications Act, 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
55. Which institution conducted India’s first clinical trial of the Supernova Stent?
A) PGIMER, Chandigarh
B) AIIMS, New Delhi
C) CMC, Vellore
D) NIMHANS, Bangalore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) AIIMS, New Delhi
56. What type of device is the Supernova Stent?
A) Cardiac pacemaker
B) Mechanical thrombectomy device
C) Vascular graft
D) Angioplasty balloon
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mechanical thrombectomy device (stent-retriever)
57. What does LVO stand for in the context of stroke treatment?
A) Left Ventricular Occlusion
B) Large Vessel Occlusion
C) Lateral Vascular Obstruction
D) Low Volume Output
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Large Vessel Occlusion
58. What causes thalassemia?
A) Bacterial infection
B) Vitamin deficiency
C) Insufficient or abnormal hemoglobin production
D) Autoimmune disorder
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Insufficient or abnormal hemoglobin production
59. Which technology platform is MahaCrimeOS AI built on?
A) Google Cloud AI
B) AWS Machine Learning
C) Azure OpenAI Service
D) IBM Watson
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Azure OpenAI Service
60. By what percentage can MahaCrimeOS AI reduce investigation turnaround time?
A) Up to 60%
B) Up to 70%
C) Up to 80%
D) Up to 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Up to 80%
61. Which international convention prohibits the development, production, and stockpiling of biological weapons?
A) Biological Weapons Convention, 1972
B) Biological Weapons Convention, 1975
C) Chemical Weapons Convention, 1975
D) Geneva Protocol, 1975
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Biological Weapons Convention, 1975
62. Which Act in India criminalizes biological weapons?
A) WMD and Delivery Systems Act, 2003
B) WMD and Delivery Systems Act, 2005
C) Biosafety Act, 2005
D) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) WMD and Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005
63. Which informal export-control regime prevents the proliferation of chemical and biological weapons?
A) Wassenaar Arrangement
B) Nuclear Suppliers Group
C) Australia Group
D) Missile Technology Control Regime
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Australia Group
64. Which of the following Acts will NOT be repealed by the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025?
A) UGC Act, 1956
B) AICTE Act, 1987
C) NCTE Act, 1993
D) Architects Act, 1972
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Architects Act, 1972
65. What is the maximum number of members (excluding ex-officio members and Member Secretary) in the VBSA Commission?
A) 10 members
B) 12 members
C) 15 members
D) 20 members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 12 members
66. What is the minimum penalty amount that the Regulatory Council can impose for non-compliance?
A) ₹5 lakh
B) ₹10 lakh
C) ₹25 lakh
D) ₹50 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹10 lakh
67. What is the maximum penalty amount for non-compliance under VBSA?
A) ₹1 crore
B) ₹2 crore
C) ₹5 crore
D) ₹10 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹2 crore
68. How many councils will function under VBSA?
A) Two councils
B) Three councils
C) Four councils
D) Five councils
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Three councils
69. In which case did the Supreme Court term dowry eradication as an urgent constitutional and social necessity?
A) State of U.P. v. Ashok Kumar
B) State of U.P. v. Ajmal Beg
C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
D) State of Maharashtra v. Madhukar Narayan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) State of U.P. v. Ajmal Beg
70. What is the minimum imprisonment term under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 10 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 5 years
71. According to NCRB data mentioned, what was the percentage rise in dowry-related cases in 2023?
A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 14%
D) 16%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 14%
72. Which section of BNS deals with dowry death (earlier Section 304-B IPC)?
A) Section 70
B) Section 75
C) Section 80
D) Section 85
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 80
73. During which period were the Ellora Caves primarily constructed?
A) c. 400-800 CE
B) c. 600-1000 CE
C) c. 800-1200 CE
D) c. 1000-1400 CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) c. 600-1000 CE
74. Under which dynasties were the Ellora Caves predominantly constructed?
A) Maurya and Gupta
B) Rashtrakuta and Yadava
C) Chalukya and Pallava
D) Chola and Pandya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Rashtrakuta and Yadava dynasties
75. Why is Petra called the “Rose City”?
A) Due to abundance of roses
B) Due to pink sandstone cliffs
C) Due to rose-shaped architecture
D) Due to rose gardens
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Due to pink sandstone cliffs
76. Petra was the capital of which ancient kingdom?
A) Phoenician Kingdom
B) Assyrian Kingdom
C) Nabataean Kingdom
D) Persian Kingdom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Nabataean Kingdom
77. What is the approximate altitude of Cho La Pass?
A) ~15,782 ft
B) ~16,782 ft
C) ~17,782 ft
D) ~18,782 ft
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ~17,782 ft
78. In which year did the Indo-China skirmishes occur at Cho La Pass?
A) 1962
B) 1965
C) 1967
D) 1971
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1967
79. The Bharat Rannbhoomi Darshan initiative is a joint effort between which two entities?
A) Indian Army & Ministry of Defence
B) Indian Army & Ministry of Tourism
C) Indian Army & Ministry of Culture
D) Indian Army & Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Indian Army & Ministry of Tourism
80. The 2017 India-China border standoff occurred near which pass?
A) Cho La Pass
B) Nathu La Pass
C) Doka La (Doklam) Pass
D) Jelep La Pass
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Doka La (Doklam) Pass
81. What is the clock speed of DHRUV64 microprocessor?
A) 0.5 GHz
B) 1.0 GHz
C) 1.5 GHz
D) 2.0 GHz
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1.0 GHz
82. Which organization developed DHRUV64?
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Madras
C) ISRO-SCL
D) C-DAC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
83. Which of the following is NOT an indigenous Indian microprocessor mentioned in the document?
A) AJIT
B) SHAKTI
C) GARUDA
D) VIKRAM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) GARUDA
84. In which year was AJIT, India’s first academic RISC processor, developed?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2018
85. What is the primary significance of Ekam AI?
A) Commercial AI applications
B) Secure AI for classified environments
C) Educational AI platform
D) Healthcare AI system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Fully indigenous and secure AI platform for classified environments
86. What type of system is SAMBHAV?
A) Radar communication system
B) Drone surveillance system
C) Portable satellite-based communication system
D) Ground-based radar system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Portable satellite-based communication system
87. Under which Act was the Central Information Commission established?
A) RTI Act, 2003
B) RTI Act, 2005
C) RTI Act, 2007
D) Information Act, 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005
88. What is the maximum number of Information Commissioners that can be appointed in the CIC?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 10 Information Commissioners
89. In which year was the UN Alliance of Civilizations launched?
A) 2003
B) 2004
C) 2005
D) 2006
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2005
90. Which two countries founded the UN Alliance of Civilizations?
A) USA and UK
B) France and Germany
C) Turkey and Spain
D) India and Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Republic of Türkiye and Spain
91. How many days of guaranteed employment does the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 provide per rural household?
A) 100 days
B) 115 days
C) 125 days
D) 150 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 125 days
92. Which Act is proposed to be replaced by the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025?
A) NREGA, 2003
B) MGNREGA, 2005
C) Rural Employment Act, 2006
D) Rural Development Act, 2005
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) MGNREGA, 2005
93. For how many days can State Governments suspend the scheme during sowing and harvesting seasons?
A) Up to 30 days
B) Up to 45 days
C) Up to 60 days
D) Up to 90 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Up to 60 days
94. Which of the following is NOT one of the four priority themes for durable asset creation under VB-G RAM G Bill?
A) Water Security
B) Core Rural Infrastructure
C) Urban Development
D) Special Works for Extreme Weather Events
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Urban Development
95. What does VGPP stand for in the context of the VB-G RAM G Bill?
A) Village Gram Panchayat Plans
B) Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans
C) Village Growth and Progress Plans
D) Viksit Gaon Planning Process
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans
96. What is the new FDI limit in Indian insurance companies under the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025?
A) 74%
B) 85%
C) 95%
D) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 100%
97. What was the previous FDI limit in Indian insurance companies?
A) 49%
B) 51%
C) 74%
D) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 74%
98. The Net Owned Fund requirement for foreign re-insurers has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to what amount?
A) ₹500 crore
B) ₹1,000 crore
C) ₹2,000 crore
D) ₹3,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹1,000 crore
99. Which Act was enacted in 1956 and is being amended by the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill?
A) Insurance Act
B) Life Insurance Corporation Act
C) General Insurance Act
D) Insurance Regulatory Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) Act, 1956
100. What does PEPF stand for?
A) Policyholder Education and Protection Fund
B) Policyholders’ Education and Protection Fund
C) Public Education and Protection Fund
D) Premium Education and Protection Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Policyholders’ Education and Protection Fund
101. Which Act is being replaced by the SHANTI Bill, 2025?
A) Nuclear Energy Act, 1960
B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
C) Nuclear Safety Act, 1965
D) Radiation Protection Act, 1970
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
102. What is the range of tiered liability structure introduced under SHANTI Bill based on reactor capacity?
A) ₹50 crore to ₹2,000 crore
B) ₹100 crore to ₹3,000 crore
C) ₹200 crore to ₹4,000 crore
D) ₹500 crore to ₹5,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ₹100 crore to ₹3,000 crore
103. What was the flat liability cap under CLNDA for reactors ≥10 MW?
A) ₹1,000 crore
B) ₹1,500 crore
C) ₹2,000 crore
D) ₹2,500 crore
Correct Answer: B) ₹1,500 crore
104. Which body will be granted statutory status under the SHANTI Bill?
A) Nuclear Power Corporation
B) Department of Atomic Energy
C) Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
D) Nuclear Safety Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
105. Which tribunal will hear appeals against decisions of AERB?
A) National Green Tribunal
B) Appellate Tribunal for Electricity
C) Central Administrative Tribunal
D) Securities Appellate Tribunal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (ATE)
106. What does MFN stand for in the context of WTO?
A) Most-Favoured Nation
B) Multi-Functional Network
C) Most-Fair Nation
D) Multilateral Finance Network
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Most-Favoured Nation
107. Which country has questioned the WTO’s role as the primary forum for global trade dispute resolution?
A) China
B) European Union
C) United States
D) Russia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) United States
108. What does CBAM stand for?
A) Carbon Border Assessment Mechanism
B) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
C) Climate Border Adjustment Method
D) Climate Based Assessment Mechanism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
109. Which WTO body remains non-functional due to the US blocking appointment of new judges?
A) Dispute Settlement Panel
B) Trade Policy Review Body
C) Appellate Body
D) General Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Appellate Body
110. At which UNGA session was the declaration on NCDs and mental health adopted?
A) 78th UNGA
B) 79th UNGA
C) 80th UNGA
D) 81st UNGA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 80th United Nations General Assembly
111. How many premature deaths do NCDs cause annually according to the document?
A) ~15 million
B) ~18 million
C) ~20 million
D) ~25 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) ~18 million
112. In which year was the Fit India Movement launched?
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2019
113. In which year was the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) launched?
A) 1980
B) 1982
C) 1985
D) 1987
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1982
114. What is the proposed new base year for GDP compilation as per Goldar Committee recommendations?
A) 2018-19
B) 2020-21
C) 2022-23
D) 2023-24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2022-23
115. What is the current base year for GDP compilation?
A) 2009-10
B) 2010-11
C) 2011-12
D) 2012-13
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2011-12
116. Who chairs the Advisory Committee on National Account Statistics (ACNAS)?
A) Prof. B. N. Goldar
B) Prof. C. Rangarajan
C) Dr. Arvind Panagariya
D) Dr. Raghuram Rajan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Prof. B. N. Goldar
117. In which year was the Maitri Research Station established?
A) 1985
B) 1988
C) 1990
D) 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 1988
118. By which year is Maitri-II Station planned to be completed?
A) 2028
B) 2030
C) 2032
D) 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2032
119. Which is India’s research station located in the Arctic?
A) Bharati
B) Dakshin Gangotri
C) Himadri
D) Maitri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Himadri
120. What fraction of global oil shipments passes through the Strait of Hormuz accessed via the Gulf of Oman?
A) Around one-tenth
B) Around one-fifth
C) Around one-fourth
D) Around one-third
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Around one-fifth
121. Under the National Bioenergy Programme (NBP), Phase-I covers which of the following periods?
A. 2018–19 to 2022–23
B. 2020–21 to 2024–25
C. 2021–22 to 2025–26
D. 2022–23 to 2026–27
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 2021–22 to 2025–26
122. Which ministry is the nodal agency for implementing the National Bioenergy Programme?
A. Ministry of Power
B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
D. Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
123. The core objective of the National Bioenergy Programme is best described as:
A. Export of biofuels
B. Productive use of surplus biomass and rural income generation
C. Replacement of coal-based power plants
D. Urban waste disposal management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Productive use of surplus biomass and rural income generation
124. Which of the following gases constitutes the primary component of biogas?
A. Hydrogen
B. Methane
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Methane
125. As of November 2025, India’s total installed bioenergy capacity is approximately:
A. 7.2 GW
B. 9.8 GW
C. 11.6 GW
D. 15.4 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 11.6 GW
126. Bioenerg accounts for nearly what percentage of India’s total final energy consumption?
A. 7%
B. 10%
C. 13%
D. 18%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 13%
127. Which initiative promotes compressed biogas (CBG) as a transport fuel?
A. JI-VAN Yojana
B. GOBAR-Dhan Scheme
C. SATAT Initiative
D. National Bioenergy Programme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) SATAT Initiative
128. The National Policy on Biofuels targets 20% ethanol blending (E20) by:
A. 2024–25
B. 2025–26
C. 2027–28
D. 2030–31
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2025–26
129. According to the 2024 Testing Figures Report, India has recorded the highest ADRVs globally for how many consecutive years?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Three
130. The positivity ratio among Indian athletes tested by NADA in 2024 was approximately:
A. 1.8%
B. 2.4%
C. 3.6%
D. 5.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 3.6%
131. Which of the following substances is primarily used to increase red blood cell production?
A. Stimulants
B. Diuretics
C. Beta blockers
D. Erythropoietin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Erythropoietin
132. The National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 provides statutory backing to:
A. Sports Authority of India
B. Indian Olympic Association
C. National Anti-Doping Agency
D. World Anti-Doping Agency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) National Anti-Doping Agency
133. The “Know Your Medicine (KYM)” App is intended to:
A. Prescribe supplements to athletes
B. Track athlete performance
C. Verify prohibited medicines
D. Register doping complaints
Correct Answer: C) Verify prohibited medicines
134. WADA was established in which year following the Lausanne Declaration?
A. 1997
B. 1998
C. 1999
D. 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 1999
135. The headquarters of the World Anti-Doping Agency is located in:
A. Geneva
B. Paris
C. Lausanne
D. Montreal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Montreal
136. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025 primarily aims to address:
A. Tax evasion issues
B. Corporate governance reforms
C. Structural and procedural bottlenecks
D. Banking sector recapitalisation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Structural and procedural bottlenecks
137. The Creditor Initiated Insolvency Resolution Process (CIIRP) is designed as:
A. A judicial-only mechanism
B. An out-of-court initiation mechanism
C. A government-driven resolution process
D. A criminal liability framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) An out-of-court initiation mechanism
138. The proposed Group Insolvency Framework seeks to address insolvency of:
A. MSMEs only
B. Public sector undertakings
C. Interlinked corporate entities
D. Cooperative societies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Interlinked corporate entities
139. Codification of the ‘Clean Slate Principle’ ensures that:
A. Insolvency cases are reopened
B. Past claims survive resolution
C. Resolution applicants are protected from legacy liabilities
D. Creditors lose voting rights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Resolution applicants are protected from legacy liabilities
140. The Select Committee recommended a statutory time limit of how many months for NCLAT disposal?
A. Two months
B. Three months
C. Four months
D. Six months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Three months
141. The highest civilian honour conferred on the Prime Minister by Ethiopia was:
A. Order of the Star of Africa
B. Ethiopian Grand Cross
C. Great Honour Nishan of Ethiopia
D. African Unity Medal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Great Honour Nishan of Ethiopia
142. India and Ethiopia elevated their relationship to which status?
A. Comprehensive Economic Partnership
B. Strategic Partnership
C. Defence Partnership
D. Preferential Trade Partnership
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Strategic Partnership
143. How many MoUs/agreements were signed during the visit?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. Eight
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) Eight
144. India–Ethiopia trade in FY 2024–25 stood at approximately:
A. US$ 350 million
B. US$ 420 million
C. US$ 550 million
D. US$ 720 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) US$ 550 million
145. Debt restructuring discussions during the visit were aligned with which framework?
A. Paris Club
B. BRICS Framework
C. G20 Common Framework
D. IMF Stabilisation Framework
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) G20 Common Framework
146. The MH-60R Seahawk is primarily classified as a:
A. Attack helicopter
B. Transport helicopter
C. Multi-mission maritime helicopter
D. Reconnaissance drone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Multi-mission maritime helicopter
147. The MH-60R Seahawk has been developed by:
A. Boeing
B. Lockheed Martin
C. Northrop Grumman
D. Sikorsky (India)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Lockheed Martin
148. The second MH-60R squadron of the Indian Navy has been commissioned at:
A. INS Rajali
B. INS Garuda
C. INS Hansa
D. INS Kadamba
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) INS Hansa
149. INS Hansa is located at:
A. Kochi
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Dabolim
D. Karwar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Dabolim
150. A unique feature of INS Hansa is that it:
A. Is India’s oldest naval base
B. Operates only night missions
C. Shares infrastructure with a civilian airport
D. Hosts aircraft carriers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Shares infrastructure with a civilian airport
151. Which High Court recently held that live-in relationships between consenting adults are not illegal?
A) Delhi High Court
B) Bombay High Court
C) Allahabad High Court
D) Madras High Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Allahabad High Court
152. Under which Constitutional Article does the Allahabad High Court emphasize personal liberty and dignity in
live-in relationships?
A) Article 19
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article 21
153. Which Supreme Court case (2017) recognized privacy, dignity, and autonomy as intrinsic to Article 21?
A) Lata Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
C) Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M.
D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
154. According to the Allahabad High Court judgment, what presumption may courts make if a man and woman
cohabit for a substantial period?
A) They are business partners
B) They are legally married
C) They are siblings
D) They are in a temporary arrangement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) They are legally married
155. Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, deals with evidentiary presumption for cohabiting
couples?
A) Section 114
B) Section 115
C) Section 119(1)
D) Section 120
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Section 119(1)
156. What is the full form of CEPA in the context of the India-Oman agreement?
A) Comprehensive Economic Promotion Agreement
B) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
C) Commercial Export Partnership Agreement
D) Customs and Economic Partnership Act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
157. What percentage of tariff lines does Oman offer zero-duty access to Indian goods under the CEPA?
A) 78%
B) 85%
C) 95%
D) 98%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D) 98%
158. What is the current bilateral trade volume between India and Oman mentioned in the document?
A) USD 5 billion
B) USD 10 billion
C) USD 15 billion
D) USD 20 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) USD 10 billion
159. Which is the first-ever FTA commitment included in the India-Oman CEPA?
A) Digital Services
B) Traditional Medicine (AYUSH)
C) Pharmaceutical Products
D) Textile Manufacturing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Traditional Medicine (AYUSH)
160. What percentage of India’s GDP did exports account for in 2024?
A) 15.5%
B) 18.7%
C) 21.2%
D) 25.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 21.2%
161. What is the total length of the India-Bangladesh border?
A) 3,500 km
B) 4,096 km
C) 4,500 km
D) 5,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 4,096 km
162. How much of the India-Bangladesh border remains unfenced?
A) About 500 km
B) About 650 km
C) About 864 km
D) About 1,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) About 864 km
163. When is the Ganga Water Treaty (1996) set to expire?
A) December 2025
B) December 2026
C) December 2027
D) December 2028
Correct Answer: B) December 2026
164. What was the bilateral trade volume between India and Bangladesh in 2024-25?
A) USD 10.25 billion
B) USD 11.89 billion
C) USD 13.46 billion
D) USD 15.72 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) USD 13.46 billion
165. Which port in Bangladesh is being upgraded by China, raising strategic concerns for India?
A) Chittagong Port
B) Mongla Port
C) Payra Port
D) Cox’s Bazar Port
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Mongla Port
166. Under which Act was the Competition Commission of India established?
A) Competition Act, 2000
B) Competition Act, 2002
C) Competition Act, 2005
D) Competition Act, 2007
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Competition Act, 2002
167. Which ministry does the Competition Commission of India function under?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
168. Where can appeals against CCI orders be filed?
A) High Court
B) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
C) Supreme Court directly
D) Competition Appellate Tribunal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
169. Which directorate investigates anti-dumping cases in India?
A) Directorate General of Foreign Trade
B) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
C) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
D) Central Board of Indirect Taxes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
170. Under which GATT article are anti-dumping duties permitted?
A) Article IV of GATT, 1994
B) Article V of GATT, 1994
C) Article VI of GATT, 1994
D) Article VII of GATT, 1994
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Article VI of GATT, 1994
171. For what duration are anti-dumping duties usually imposed?
A) Up to 3 years
B) Up to 5 years
C) Up to 7 years
D) Up to 10 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Up to 5 years
172. What is the total outlay for the National Project for Strengthening Disaster Risk Reduction (NPSDRR)?
A) ₹350.50 crore
B) ₹425.75 crore
C) ₹507.37 crore
D) ₹650.25 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) ₹507.37 crore
173. How many Gram Panchayats per district are covered under NPSDRR?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) 20
174. Which global framework promotes Community-Based Disaster Risk Reduction?
A) Paris Agreement
B) Kyoto Protocol
C) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-2030)
D) Montreal Protocol
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-2030)
175. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression?
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 19(1)(b)
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A) Article 19(1)(a)
176. Which IPC section deals with promoting enmity between different groups?
A) Section 120A
B) Section 153A
C) Section 295A
D) Section 420
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Section 153A
177. What is the maximum power capacity per unit for Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?
A) Up to 150 MW(e)
B) Up to 200 MW(e)
C) Up to 300 MW(e)
D) Up to 500 MW(e)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Up to 300 MW(e)
178. By which year does India plan to operationalize at least five indigenously designed SMRs?
A) 2030
B) 2033
C) 2035
D) 2040
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 2033
179. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under which Act?
A) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
B) Environment Protection Act, 1986
C) Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
D) National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C) Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
180. Which authority did the CAQM replace?
A) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
B) Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA)
C) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
D) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA)
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