Send your enquiry now ×

Get free counselling and course details.

1 October to 7 October 2026 (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Practice the October 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the first week of October 2026. 

The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 October features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.

1st Week of October 2026: Current Affairs Quiz


Q1. India’s UNESCO Tentative List proposals are prepared in accordance with which provision of the World Heritage Convention, 1972?

A. Article 5(2)
B. Article 11(1)
C. Article 15(3)
D. Article 29(1)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Article 11(1)


Q2. Which body coordinates India’s World Heritage-related nominations and Tentative List proposals?

A. Ministry of Tourism
B. Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
C. INTACH
D. UNESCO India Office

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)


Q3. As per the passage, how many properties does India currently have on the UNESCO Tentative List?

A. 45
B. 68
C. 78
D. 90

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 78


Q4. The Bagh Cave Paintings are located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

A. Dhar district
B. Morena district
C. Vidisha district
D. Raisen district

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Dhar district


Q5. Which cave of the Bagh complex is popularly known as ‘Rang Mahal’ (Palace of Colours)?

A. Cave 1
B. Cave 4
C. Cave 9
D. Cave 20

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Cave 4


Q6. The Group of Temples of the Chambal Valley, proposed for the UNESCO list, is located in which district?

A. Dhar
B. Vidisha
C. Morena
D. Raisen

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Morena


Q7. The Kakanmath Temple at Sihoniya is attributed to which ruler?

A. Bhima I of Chaulukya dynasty
B. Kirtiraja of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty
C. Chandragupta II
D. Mahmud of Ghazni

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Kirtiraja of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty


Q8. The Udaigiri Caves, near Vidisha, are associated with which Gupta ruler through epigraphic evidence?

A. Samudragupta
B. Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya)
C. Kumaragupta I
D. Skandagupta

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya)


Q9. Which cave at Udaigiri is distinctive as the only Jain cave in the complex, containing an image of Parshvanatha?

A. Cave 4
B. Cave 5
C. Cave 9
D. Cave 20

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. Cave 20


Q10. Ginnorgarh Fort, proposed for the UNESCO Tentative List, is situated within which tiger reserve?

A. Ratapani Tiger Reserve
B. Buxa Tiger Reserve
C. Panna Tiger Reserve
D. Kanha Tiger Reserve

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ratapani Tiger Reserve


Q11. The ‘Sites of Satyagraha’ transnational UNESCO proposal links India with which country?

A. United Kingdom
B. South Africa
C. Mauritius
D. Kenya

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. South Africa


Q12. According to polling cited by the UN Foundation, what percentage of respondents believe the UN is capable of providing leadership on major global challenges?

A. 38%
B. 48%
C. 58%
D. 68%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 48%


Q13. Which initiative advocates voluntary restraint on the use of vetoes by P5 members in situations involving mass atrocities?

A. ACT Group Code of Conduct
B. French-Mexican initiative
C. Global Public Investment approach
D. UNGA Resolution 76/262

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. French-Mexican initiative


Q14. UNGA Resolution 76/262 provides a mechanism for which of the following?

A. Automatic suspension of veto power
B. The General Assembly to convene and debate whenever a P5 member uses its veto
C. Direct UNSC membership expansion
D. Mandatory peacekeeping troop contributions

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. The General Assembly to convene and debate whenever a P5 member uses its veto


Q15. India’s anti-defection mechanism was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment?

A. 42nd Amendment Act
B. 44th Amendment Act
C. 52nd Amendment Act
D. 91st Amendment Act

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 52nd Amendment Act


Q16. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 limited the size of the Council of Ministers to what percentage of the total strength of the House?

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 15%


Q17. Under the merger exception in the Tenth Schedule, what threshold of legislature party members must agree for protection from disqualification?

A. Simple majority
B. One-half
C. Two-thirds
D. Three-fourths

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Two-thirds


Q18. In Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur (2020), the Supreme Court held that disqualification petitions should ordinarily be decided within:

A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. One year

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Three months


Q19. In Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary, Governor of Maharashtra (2023), the Supreme Court held that the authority to appoint a whip rests with:

A. The legislature party
B. The political party
C. The Speaker
D. The Election Commission

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. The political party


Q20. According to the 2011 Census, what was India’s overall literacy rate?

A. 65.46%
B. 74.04%
C. 82.14%
D. 84.1%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 74.04%


Q21. As per India’s definition, what is the full literacy benchmark for a State/UT?

A. 90% or above
B. 95% or above
C. 99% or above
D. 100%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 95% or above


Q22. NIPUN Bharat is implemented under which broader framework?

A. Samagra Shiksha
B. ULLAS
C. PM SHRI
D. PM e-VIDYA

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Samagra Shiksha


Q23. As per NEP 2020, what is the target Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for higher education by 2035?

A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 50%


Q24. PM POSHAN covers how many crore students enrolled in Bal Vatika and Classes I-VIII?

A. 8.20 crore
B. 9.60 crore
C. 11.20 crore
D. 14.50 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 11.20 crore


Q25. The International Whaling Commission (IWC) was created under which convention?

A. CITES, 1975
B. International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW), 1946
C. UNCLOS, 1982
D. Ramsar Convention, 1971

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW), 1946


Q26. In which year did the IWC adopt the moratorium on commercial whaling?

A. 1979
B. 1982
C. 1985
D. 1994

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1982


Q27. India launched Project Dolphin, focused on cetacean and aquatic species conservation, in which year?

A. 2018
B. 2019
C. 2020
D. 2021

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 2020


Q28. The Modhera Sun Temple was constructed during the reign of which ruler?

A. Mahmud of Ghazni
B. Bhima I of the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty
C. Alauddin Khalji
D. Kirtiraja

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Bhima I of the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty


Q29. The Surya Kund at Modhera Sun Temple has its steps adorned with how many miniature shrines?

A. 52
B. 78
C. 108
D. 200

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 108


Q30. Bhagat Singh, along with Sukhdev and Rajguru, was executed on which date, commemorated as Shaheed Diwas?

A. 28 September 1907
B. 23 March 1931
C. 9 January 1915
D. 30 January 1948

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 23 March 1931


31. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan spoke about the mass deletion of voters at which institution?

A. NLSIU, Bengaluru
B. NALSAR, Hyderabad
C. NLU, Delhi
D. WBNUJS, Kolkata

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. NALSAR, Hyderabad


32. Which Article provides that elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage?

A. Article 326
B. Article 324
C. Article 325
D. Article 329

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Article 326


33. The voting age in India was lowered from 21 to 18 years by which Constitutional Amendment?

A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 61st Amendment

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. 61st Amendment


34. Under Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed:

A. By the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. By a resolution of the Lok Sabha alone
C. In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge
D. By the Chief Justice of India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge


35. To remove a Supreme Court judge, the address in each House of Parliament must be supported by:

A. A simple majority of members present and voting
B. A majority of the total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting
C. Two-thirds of the total membership of the Lok Sabha only
D. Three-fourths of members present and voting

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. A majority of the total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting


36. Delhi Police registered FIRs over the 2 October protest under Section 223 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. This section deals with:

A. Disobedience to an order duly issued by a public servant
B. Rioting
C. Criminal conspiracy
D. Unlawful assembly

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Disobedience to an order duly issued by a public servant


37. A writ that asks a person “by what authority” he holds a public office is called:

A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas corpus
D. Quo warranto

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. Quo warranto


38. When it was set up in Calcutta in 1891, the Central Secretariat Library was known as:

A. Imperial Library
B. National Library of India
C. Imperial Secretariat Library
D. Connemara Public Library

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Imperial Secretariat Library


39. Since which year has the Central Secretariat Library been housed in Shastri Bhawan, New Delhi?

A. 1969
B. 1947
C. 1950
D. 1991

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. 1969


40. What does the Latin phrase “suo motu” mean?

A. In the public interest
B. On its own motion
C. By way of appeal
D. For the time being

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. On its own motion


41. Kartavya Path in New Delhi was earlier known as:

A. Janpath
B. Ashoka Road
C. Raisina Road
D. Rajpath

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. Rajpath


42. On which date is the GST Council expected to discuss removing the arrest powers of GST officers?

A. 2 October 2026
B. 5 October 2026
C. 7 October 2026
D. 16 October 2026

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 7 October 2026


43. Which section of the Central GST Act, 2017 gives GST officers the power to arrest?

A. Section 69
B. Section 16
C. Section 132
D. Section 7

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Section 69


44. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the GST Council?

A. Article 246A
B. Article 279A
C. Article 269A
D. Article 280

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Article 279A


45. Who chairs the GST Council?

A. The Prime Minister
B. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
C. The Chairman of GSTN
D. The Union Finance Minister

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. The Union Finance Minister


46. The two captive-bred Great Indian Bustards were released near Sam, in the Desert National Park. Sam is in which district of Rajasthan?

A. Bikaner
B. Jodhpur
C. Jaisalmer
D. Udaipur

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Jaisalmer


47. What is the IUCN Red List status of the Great Indian Bustard?

A. Critically Endangered
B. Endangered
C. Vulnerable
D. Near Threatened

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Critically Endangered


48. The Great Indian Bustard is the State bird of:

A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Maharashtra
D. Karnataka

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Rajasthan


49. In which case did the Supreme Court, while dealing with the protection of the Great Indian Bustard, recognise a right against the adverse effects of climate change under Articles 14 and 21?

A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
B. T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India
C. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
D. M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India


50. Where were the 2026 Asian Games held?

A. Hangzhou, China
B. Jakarta-Palembang, Indonesia
C. Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
D. Doha, Qatar

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Aichi-Nagoya, Japan


51. What was India’s medal tally at the 2026 Asian Games?

A. 28 gold, 38 silver, 41 bronze
B. 21 gold, 27 silver, 37 bronze
C. 21 gold, 37 silver, 27 bronze
D. 27 gold, 21 silver, 37 bronze

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 21 gold, 27 silver, 37 bronze


52. Which country topped the medal table at the 2026 Asian Games?

A. China
B. Japan
C. South Korea
D. Uzbekistan

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. China


53. Which city is to host the next Asian Games in 2030?

A. Riyadh
B. Bangkok
C. Nagoya
D. Doha

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. Doha


54. On which date will elections to 12 Rajya Sabha seats in Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and West Bengal be held?

A. 6 October 2026
B. 9 October 2026
C. 16 October 2026
D. 25 November 2026

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 16 October 2026


55. Members of the Rajya Sabha from a State are elected by:

A. All voters of the State directly
B. Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly, through the single transferable vote
C. Members of the Lok Sabha from that State
D. Nomination by the Governor

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly, through the single transferable vote


56. Under Article 80, what is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?

A. 250
B. 245
C. 238
D. 252

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. 250


57. Which statement about the US visa bond programme reported in October 2026 is correct?

A. It covers 30 countries, with bonds of up to $10,000
B. It covers 50 countries, and India is on the list
C. It applies only to student visas
D. It covers 50 countries, with bonds of up to $20,000, and India is exempt

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. It covers 50 countries, with bonds of up to $20,000, and India is exempt


58. Bhadohi district in Uttar Pradesh has been renamed as:

A. Sant Kabir Nagar Bhadohi
B. Kashi Bhadohi
C. Sant Ravidas Nagar Bhadohi
D. Ravidas Dham Bhadohi

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Sant Ravidas Nagar Bhadohi


59. The Centre of Excellence for Classical Pali will be set up at:

A. Visva-Bharati University
B. Central University of Odisha
C. Tezpur University
D. Deccan College Post Graduate and Research Institute, Pune

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Central University of Odisha


60. How many languages have classical language status in India now?

A. 6
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. 11


Q61. India’s revised Model Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) has been forwarded by the Ministry of Finance to which body for approval?

A. Union Cabinet
B. NITI Aayog
C. Parliament
D. RBI

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Union Cabinet


Q62. India’s first Model BIT (prior to the 2015 revision) was adopted in which year?

A. 1991
B. 1993
C. 2000
D. 2010

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1993


Q63. Which category of investment was excluded from protection under India’s 2015 Model BIT?

A. Portfolio investments
B. Manufacturing investments
C. FDI in infrastructure
D. Joint ventures

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Portfolio investments


Q64. The 2015 Model BIT notably does NOT provide which treatment to investors?

A. National Treatment
B. Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) Treatment
C. Fair and Equitable Treatment
D. Full Protection and Security

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) Treatment


Q65. Which dispute is cited as an example of implications arising from MFN-based arguments against India?

A. Vodafone v. India
B. White Industries v. India
C. Cairn Energy v. India
D. Devas v. India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. White Industries v. India


Q66. Under the 2015 Model BIT, how long must an investor pursue local remedies in India before seeking international arbitration?

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 5 years


Q67. The India–UAE and India–Israel investment agreements provide for a local-remedies period of how many years, departing from the 2015 model?

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 3 years


Q68. The GOBARdhan Scheme is implemented under which Ministry?

A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
C. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
D. Ministry of Rural Development

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas


Q69. GOBARdhan was originally launched in 2018 under which programme?

A. Swachh Bharat Mission–Grameen
B. National Bioenergy Mission
C. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
D. SATAT Scheme

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Swachh Bharat Mission–Grameen


Q70. What is the target CBG production level under the expanded GOBARdhan programme?

A. 1 million SCMD
B. 2.5 million SCMD
C. 5 million SCMD
D. 10 million SCMD

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 5 million SCMD


Q71. Under GOBARdhan, the capital assistance for greenfield CBG projects is set at what rate?

A. ₹0.50 crore per TPD
B. ₹1.25 crore per TPD
C. ₹2.00 crore per TPD
D. ₹3.00 crore per TPD

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. ₹1.25 crore per TPD


Q72. Which entity will procure up to 100% of saleable CBG at an administered price of ₹2,110 per MMBtu?

A. Indian Oil Corporation
B. GAIL (India) Limited
C. ONGC
D. Bharat Petroleum

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. GAIL (India) Limited


Q73. What is the CBG procurement obligation for City Gas Distribution entities in FY 2026–27?

A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 3%


Q74. PM-SETU is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of which Ministry?

A. Ministry of Education
B. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
C. Ministry of Labour and Employment
D. Ministry of MSME

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship


Q75. Under PM-SETU’s Hub-and-Spoke model, how many ITIs are planned to be upgraded as Hub and Spoke institutes respectively?

A. 100 Hub and 400 Spoke
B. 200 Hub and 800 Spoke
C. 300 Hub and 600 Spoke
D. 150 Hub and 750 Spoke

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 200 Hub and 800 Spoke


Q76. How many National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs) are being upgraded into National Centres of Excellence under PM-SETU?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Five


Q77. What is the total projected financing for PM-SETU, combining Central, State and industry contributions?

A. ₹40,000 crore
B. ₹50,000 crore
C. ₹60,000 crore
D. ₹75,000 crore

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. ₹60,000 crore


Q78. Which international bodies will co-finance 50% of the Central Government’s share under PM-SETU?

A. IMF and World Bank
B. ADB and World Bank
C. UNDP and ADB
D. World Bank and WTO

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. ADB and World Bank


Q79. The Supreme Court’s 2026 ruling on post-facto Environmental Clearance arose from which case?

A. MC Mehta v. Union of India
B. Vanashakti v. Union of India
C. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
D. T.N. Godavarman v. Union of India

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Vanashakti v. Union of India


Q80. What did the Supreme Court direct regarding Environmental Clearances already granted under the quashed 2021 mechanism?

A. They were automatically cancelled
B. They were allowed to remain valid
C. They required re-approval within 6 months
D. They were referred to NGT for review

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. They were allowed to remain valid


Q81. The post-facto EC mechanism was first introduced in which year as a one-time, six-month compliance window?

A. 2015
B. 2017
C. 2019
D. 2021

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 2017


Q82. Shyamji Krishna Varma was born in which town?

A. Porbandar, Gujarat
B. Mandvi, Kutch, Gujarat
C. Surat, Gujarat
D. Rajkot, Gujarat

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Mandvi, Kutch, Gujarat


Q83. Shyamji Krishna Varma established India House and the Indian Home Rule Society in London in which year?

A. 1900
B. 1905
C. 1910
D. 1915

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1905


Q84. Shyamji Krishna Varma became the first Indian to obtain a Master of Arts degree from which university?

A. Cambridge
B. Oxford
C. London School of Economics
D. Edinburgh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Oxford


Q85. In which year were Shyamji Krishna Varma’s ashes brought back to India and placed at Kranti Teerth, Mandvi?

A. 1995
B. 2003
C. 2010
D. 2015

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 2003


Q86. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) was established in which year?

A. 1875
B. 1889
C. 1921
D. 1945

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1889


Q87. Where is the Inter-Parliamentary Union headquartered?

A. New York, USA
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Brussels, Belgium
D. Vienna, Austria

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Geneva, Switzerland


Q88. The 153rd Assembly of the IPU (October 2026) was held in which country?

A. Kenya
B. Tanzania
C. South Africa
D. Uganda

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Tanzania


Q89. Why is 9 January observed as Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas?

A. Birth anniversary of Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this date in 1915
C. India’s independence from British rule
D. Founding day of the Indian National Congress

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this date in 1915


Q90. The Great Indian Bustard pilot release programme into the wild is being conducted in which protected area?

A. Desert National Park, Jaisalmer
B. Ranthambore National Park
C. Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Keoladeo National Park

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Desert National Park, Jaisalmer


Q91. The India–Switzerland cooperation instruments were signed during the State visit of which Swiss leader?

A. Alain Berset
B. Guy Parmelin
C. Ignazio Cassis
D. Viola Amherd

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Guy Parmelin


Q92. The Agreement on Exchange of Young Professionals between India and Switzerland allows for an annual exchange of how many professionals from each country?

A. Up to 100
B. Up to 200
C. Up to 300
D. Up to 500

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Up to 300


Q93. The MoU on Migration and Mobility Partnership between India and Switzerland provides for multiple-entry visas valid for up to how many years?

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 5 years


Q94. The India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) entered into force on which date?

A. 1 January 2025
B. 1 October 2025
C. 1 October 2026
D. 1 April 2026

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1 October 2025


Q95. Which of the following is NOT a member country of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

A. Iceland
B. Liechtenstein
C. Norway
D. Germany

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. Germany


Q96. India and Switzerland established diplomatic relations in which year, formalised through the Treaty of Friendship?

A. 1945
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1955

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1948


Q97. In 1515, which ruler gifted a rhinoceros to King Manuel I of Portugal, an early example of animal diplomacy involving India?

A. Akbar
B. Sultan Muzaffar II of Gujarat
C. Krishnadevaraya
D. Sher Shah Suri

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Sultan Muzaffar II of Gujarat


Q98. Jawaharlal Nehru gifted an elephant named Indira to which country in 1949?

A. Soviet Union
B. United States
C. Japan
D. China

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Japan


Q99. A major shift in China’s panda diplomacy, moving from permanent gifting to long-term leasing arrangements, occurred in which year?

A. 1972
B. 1984
C. 1990
D. 2000

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1984


Q100. In 2026, India gifted five peacocks to which international body as an act of cultural diplomacy?

A. WHO headquarters, Geneva
B. United Nations’ European headquarters, Geneva
C. UNESCO headquarters, Paris
D. IOC headquarters, Lausanne

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. United Nations’ European headquarters, Geneva


Q101. The 2026 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded for discoveries that laid the foundation for which technique?

A. CRISPR gene editing
B. Optogenetics
C. mRNA vaccine technology
D. Immunotherapy

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Optogenetics


Q102. Which of the following scientists is credited with pioneering the adaptation of light-sensitive microbial proteins for use in mammalian neurons?

A. Peter Hegemann
B. Georg Nagel
C. Karl Deisseroth
D. James Allison

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Karl Deisseroth


Q103. Channelrhodopsins, discovered by Hegemann and Nagel, function as:

A. Light-gated ion channels
B. Voltage-gated sodium channels
C. Neurotransmitter receptors
D. DNA repair enzymes

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Light-gated ion channels


Q104. Guru Nanak Dev, founder of Sikhism, was born in 1469 at which place, now known as Nankana Sahib?

A. Amritsar
B. Rai Bhoi di Talwandi
C. Kartarpur
D. Sultanpur Lodi

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Rai Bhoi di Talwandi


Q105. Which of the following is NOT one of Guru Nanak Dev’s Three Cardinal Principles?

A. Naam Japna
B. Kirat Karni
C. Vand Chakna
D. Sangat Milna

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D. Sangat Milna


Q106. Guru Nanak Dev established Kartarpur Sahib on the banks of which river during his later years?

A. Sutlej
B. Beas
C. Ravi
D. Chenab

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Ravi


Q107. Who did Guru Nanak Dev appoint as his successor, who later became the second Sikh Guru?

A. Guru Amar Das
B. Bhai Lehna (Guru Angad Dev)
C. Guru Ram Das
D. Guru Arjan Dev

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Bhai Lehna (Guru Angad Dev)


Q108. The White House Accord on Superintelligence was signed jointly with how many major technology companies?

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. Six


Q109. The White House Accord on Superintelligence is officially subtitled as:

A. Global AI Safety Framework
B. Joint Commitment on Frontier Responsibilities
C. AI Risk Mitigation Pact
D. Frontier Model Governance Charter

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Joint Commitment on Frontier Responsibilities


Q110. The US Executive Order 14434, signed alongside the Accord, is titled:

A. Inaugurating the Era of Super Intelligence
B. Securing America’s AI Future
C. Frontier AI Safety Mandate
D. National AI Strategy Order

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Inaugurating the Era of Super Intelligence


Q111. India finished at which overall position in the 2026 Asian Games with 85 medals?

A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 5th

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 4th


Q112. Who was India’s flag-bearer at the 2026 Asian Games closing ceremony?

A. Vithya Ramraj
B. Neeru Dhanda
C. PT Usha
D. Manu Bhaker

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Neeru Dhanda


Q113. India’s women’s hockey team won Asian Games gold in 2026 for the first time since which year?

A. 1966
B. 1982
C. 1998
D. 2014

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1982


Q114. Which country will host the next Asian Games in 2030?

A. China
B. Qatar
C. Japan
D. South Korea

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Qatar


Q115. India’s cheetah population under Project Cheetah has increased to how many following the birth of five cubs at Kuno National Park?

A. 50
B. 55
C. 60
D. 65

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. 60


Q116. Project Cheetah is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority under which Ministry?

A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B. Ministry of Agriculture
C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
D. Ministry of Earth Sciences

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change


Q117. Kuno National Park, the principal site for cheetah reintroduction, was upgraded to National Park status in which year?

A. 1981
B. 2018
C. 2020
D. 2022

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. 2018


Q118. World Habitat Day 2026 was observed on 5 October 2026 with which theme?

A. Cities for All
B. Adequate Housing for All
C. Sustainable Cities, Resilient Communities
D. Housing First

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B. Adequate Housing for All


Q119. Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL), which observed its Diamond Jubilee in 2026, is headquartered at:

A. Jaduguda, Jharkhand
B. Tarapur, Maharashtra
C. Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
D. Narora, Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A. Jaduguda, Jharkhand


Q120. ‘Mountain Guardian 2026,’ a joint military exercise commenced in Uttarakhand, is conducted between India and which country?

A. United States
B. France
C. UAE
D. Japan

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C. UAE

Download Free PDF

Download the October 2026 1st Week Current Affairs Quiz PDF to easily access all questions and answers. 


Study Current Affairs of October 1st Week

For a detailed understanding of the major events from the 1st week of October 2026, visit our comprehensive current affairs page. It covers all significant news and developments, providing essential insights to help you stay informed and well-prepared for exams or discussions.

1 October to 7 October (Weekly Current Affairs)


Try Current Affairs Quiz of Other Weeks

22 October to 31 October (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)
15 October to 21 October (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)8 October to 14 October (Weekly Current Affairs Quiz)

Day-wise Current Affairs Quizzes of October 2026

12 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz10 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz
9 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz8 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz
7 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz6 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz
5 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz1 October 2026 Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Browse Current Affairs Quiz by Categories

Current Affairs QuizDaily Current Affairs Quiz
Weekly Current Affairs QuizMonthly Current Affairs Quiz

Scroll to Top