Practice the May 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the first week of May 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 1 to 7 May features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
1st Week of May 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
1. According to the NSO 80th Round Health Survey (2025), what percentage of rural OPD usage shifted to public facilities compared to 2014?
A) 22% to 28%
B) 28% to 35%
C) 30% to 40%
D) 35% to 45%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 28% to 35%
2. What is the median hospitalisation cost in government facilities as per the NSO 80th Round Survey?
A) ₹500
B) ₹1,100
C) ₹6,631
D) ₹11,285
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ₹1,100
3. What percentage of hospitalisations occur in private facilities according to the NSO Health Survey 2025?
A) 45.5%
B) 52.3%
C) 64.2%
D) 75.8%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 64.2%
4. Which scheme provides ₹5 lakh health cover specifically for citizens aged 70 and above?
A) Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY
B) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan
C) AMRIT
D) Ayushman Bharat Vay Vandana Yojana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Ayushman Bharat Vay Vandana Yojana
5. The Right to Education Act, 2009 was enacted to operationalise which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21A
D) Article 45
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 21A
6. Article 21A was inserted into the Indian Constitution through which Amendment?
A) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
B) 74th Constitutional Amendment
C) 86th Constitutional Amendment
D) 93rd Constitutional Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 86th Constitutional Amendment
7. The RTE Act, 2009 guarantees free and compulsory education for children in which age group?
A) ~50%
B) ~65%
C) ~80%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~80%
8. In the case ‘Lucknow Public School vs State of Uttar Pradesh’, the Supreme Court ruled that schools cannot question eligibility lists finalised by which authority?
A) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
B) Government authorities
C) State Human Rights Commission
D) District Education Officer only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Government authorities
9. What does the acronym E-PRAAPTI stand for?
A) EPF Portal for Real-time Access and Payment Transactions Integration
B) EPF Aadhaar-Based Access Portal for Tracking Inoperative Accounts
C) Electronic Provident Fund Registration and Pension Transaction Interface
D) EPFO Aadhaar Portal for Reactivating and Aligning Pension Transactions Instantly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) EPF Aadhaar-Based Access Portal for Tracking Inoperative Accounts
10. An EPF account is classified as ‘inoperative’ if there are no contributions for how many years after retirement?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 3 years
11. The Universal Account Number (UAN) issued by EPFO consists of how many digits?
A) 8 digits
B) 10 digits
C) 12 digits
D) 16 digits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 12 digits
12. EPFO functions under which Ministry of the Government of India?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
D) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
13. E100 automotive fuel consists of approximately what percentage of anhydrous ethanol?
A) ~75%
B) ~85%
C) ~93%
D) ~100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~93%
14. E100 has approximately how much lower energy density compared to petrol?
A) ~10%
B) ~20%
C) ~33%
D) ~50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~33%
15. Every 1% increase in ethanol blending can save approximately how much annually in crude oil imports?
A) ~$50 million
B) ~$100 million
C) ~$200 million
D) ~$500 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~$200 million
16. The draft notification on E100 proposes revising the Gross Vehicle Weight (GVW) threshold from 3,000 kg to:
A) 3,200 kg
B) 3,500 kg
C) 4,000 kg
D) 4,500 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 3,500 kg
17. Sikkim achieved 100% organic state status in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2016
18. Which international award did Sikkim receive for excellence in organic agriculture?
A) UN Environment Award
B) Future Policy Gold Award
C) FAO Organic Excellence Award
D) Green Planet Award
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Future Policy Gold Award
19. Which Union Territory is recognised as India’s first fully organic UT?
A) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
B) Puducherry
C) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
D) Lakshadweep
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Lakshadweep
20. Sikkim became India’s 22nd state through which Constitutional Amendment?
A) 33rd Amendment Act, 1974
B) 35th Amendment Act, 1974
C) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
D) 40th Amendment Act, 1976
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
21. India achieved its E20 (20% ethanol blending) target in which year?
A) 2023
B) 2024
C) 2025
D) 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2025
22. Which feedstock requires the highest water consumption (~10,790 litres) per litre of ethanol produced?
A) Sugarcane
B) Maize
C) Rice
D) Sweet sorghum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rice
23. India’s future ethanol blending target is E27 by which year?
A) 2027
B) 2028
C) 2030
D) 2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2030
24. The PAI 2.0 report (FY 2023–24) evaluates Gram Panchayats against how many parameters?
A) 75
B) 100
C) 150
D) 230
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 150
25. Which state leads PAI 2.0 with approximately 80% of its Gram Panchayats classified as ‘Front Runners’?
A) Kerala
B) Odisha
C) Tripura
D) Himachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tripura
26. In PAI 2.0 grading, a Panchayat scoring between 75–90 is classified as:
A) Achiever
B) Front Runner
C) Performer
D) Aspirant
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Front Runner
27. What percentage of Gram Panchayats participated in PAI 2.0 across 33 States/UTs?
A) 85.1%
B) 90.5%
C) 94.2%
D) 97.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 94.2%
28. India ranked 5th globally in defence spending in 2025. Which country ranked 4th?
A) France
B) United Kingdom
C) Germany
D) Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Germany
29. India ranked 5th globally in defence spending in 2025. Which country ranked 4th?
A) France
B) United Kingdom
C) Germany
D) Japan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Germany
30. Where are the mortal remains of St. Francis Xavier preserved?
A) St. Cathedral Church, Panaji
B) Se Cathedral, Old Goa
C) Basilica of Bom Jesus, Old Goa
D) Church of the Gesù, Rome
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Basilica of Bom Jesus, Old Goa
31. Under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021, abortion beyond 24 weeks is permitted only in which specific condition?
A) Rape survivors of any age
B) Substantial foetal abnormalities certified by a Medical Board
C) All minors regardless of gestational age
D) Single women upon request
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Substantial foetal abnormalities certified by a Medical Board
32. Section 19 of the POCSO Act mandates which action in cases of minor pregnancies?
A) Mandatory abortion within 12 weeks
B) Compulsory guardian consent
C) Mandatory reporting triggering automatic criminal investigation
D) Referral to the National Commission for Women
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Mandatory reporting triggering automatic criminal investigation
33. In which landmark case (2017) did the Supreme Court allow abortion for a 13-year-old rape survivor, prioritising trauma over foetal viability?
A) X v. Principal Secretary, Health, Delhi (2022)
B) S v. State of Haryana (2024)
C) Murugan Nayakkar v. Union of India (2017)
D) Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration (2009)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Murugan Nayakkar v. Union of India (2017)
34. Under which Article can the Supreme Court invoke special powers to grant exceptional relief beyond statutory limits in abortion cases?
A) Article 32
B) Article 136
C) Article 142
D) Article 226
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 142
35. According to the Women and Men in India 2025 report, India’s Sex Ratio at Birth improved from 904 (2017–19) to which figure in 2021–23?
A) 908
B) 917
C) 926
D) 935
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 917
36. Which state recorded the highest Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) according to the Women and Men in India 2025 report?
A) Kerala
B) Nagaland
C) Meghalaya
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Arunachal Pradesh
37. India’s Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) dropped significantly to what level in 2021–23?
A) 54
B) 66
C) 88
D) 112
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 88
38. What percentage of total crimes in India was accounted for by crimes against women in 2023?
A) 4.25%
B) 5.66%
C) 7.18%
D) 9.32%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7.18%
39. In which year were India–Italy bilateral ties elevated to a Strategic Partnership?
A) 2019
B) 2021
C) 2023
D) 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2023
40. Italy is India’s _ largest trading partner in the European Union.
A) 2nd
B) 3rd
C) 4th
D) 5th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 4th
41. Which of the following multilateral initiatives have India and Italy co-founded?
A) Quad and I2U2
B) Global Biofuels Alliance and India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
C) BRICS and SCO
D) Artemis Accords and IPEF
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Global Biofuels Alliance and India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
42. India’s first Integrated Basmati and Organic Training Centre is being set up in which city of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Lucknow
B) Saharanpur
C) Pilibhit
D) Bahraich
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Pilibhit
43. APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority) functions under which Ministry?
A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
44. E100 has approximately how much lower energy density compared to petrol?
A) Acetaldehyde
B) Methyl butyrate
C) 2-acetyl-1-pyrroline
D) Vanillin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2-acetyl-1-pyrroline
45. Which state is the largest producer of Basmati rice in India, accounting for approximately 44% of production?
A) Punjab
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Haryana
D) Uttarakhand
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Haryana
46. The tiger deaths in Kanha Tiger Reserve were attributed to which viral infection?
A) Feline Parvovirus
B) Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)
C) Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus
D) Rabies Virus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)
47. How many tiger deaths were recorded in India in 2025, making it the second highest ever?
A) 102
B) 126
C) 143
D) 166
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 166
48. Kanha Tiger Reserve is situated in which hill range?
A) Vindhya Range
B) Satpura Hills (Maikal Range)
C) Aravalli Hills
D) Eastern Ghats
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Satpura Hills (Maikal Range)
49. Which species is unique to Kanha Tiger Reserve and is known as the ‘Jewel of Kanha’?
A) Bengal Tiger
B) Swamp Deer (Soft-ground Barasingha)
C) Hard-ground Barasingha
D) Indian Gaur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Hard-ground Barasingha
50. Which invasive plant species will serve as the primary raw material for the green methanol facility at Kandla?
A) Lantana camara
B) Parthenium hysterophorus
C) Prosopis juliflora
D) Mikania micrantha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Prosopis juliflora
51. Prosopis juliflora is known as ‘Gando Baval’ in which Indian state?
A) Rajasthan
B) Maharashtra
C) Gujarat
D) Telangana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Gujarat
52. India’s first green methanol production facility was commissioned at which NTPC plant?
A) NTPC Ramagundam
B) NTPC Vindhyachal
C) NTPC Talcher
D) NTPC Simhadri
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) NTPC Vindhyachal
53. The Kandla green methanol facility aligns with which Indian government guideline for sustainable ports?
A) Sagarmala Guidelines 2025
B) Blue Port Policy 2024
C) Harit Sagar Guidelines
D) Maritime India Vision 2030
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Harit Sagar Guidelines
54. The Chicago General Strike of 1886 that inspired International Labour Day was primarily a protest for which demand?
A) Minimum wage laws
B) An eight-hour workday
C) Right to form trade unions
D) Abolition of child labour
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) An eight-hour workday
55. Where was International Labour Day first observed in India and in which year?
A) Kolkata, 1920
B) Mumbai, 1921
C) Chennai (Madras), 1923
D) Delhi, 1925
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Chennai (Madras), 1923
56. Buddha Purnima (Vesak) commemorates which three pivotal events in Gautama Buddha’s life?
A) Birth, First Sermon, and Mahaparinirvana
B) Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahaparinirvana
C) Renunciation, Enlightenment, and First Sermon
D) Birth, Renunciation, and Mahaparinirvana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahaparinirvana
57. Gautama Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana (final liberation) at which location?
A) Bodh Gaya
B) Sarnath
C) Lumbini
D) Kushinagar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Kushinagar
58. The Short-Range Naval Anti-Ship Missile (NASM-SR) was developed by which DRDO laboratory?
A) Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL)
B) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
C) Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE)
D) Naval Science & Technological Laboratory (NSTL)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
59. NASM-SR is designed to replace which legacy missile of British origin?
A) Sea Harrier
B) Seacat
C) Sea Eagle
D) Sea Dart
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Sea Eagle
60. The traditional Ru-Soam bridges of Sikkim are made by which indigenous community?
A) Garo community
B) Lepcha community
C) Bodo community
D) Mizo community
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Lepcha community
61. Brain death certification in India requires a 4-member medical board. Which of the following is NOT typically part of this panel?
A) Neurologist or Neurosurgeon
B) Treating Physician
C) Forensic Expert
D) A second independent doctor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Forensic Expert
62. The Apnea Test in brain death certification checks for which specific function?
A) Eye movement response
B) Pupil dilation reflex
C) Ability to breathe independently without ventilator support
D) Pain response to stimuli
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ability to breathe independently without ventilator support
63. Brain death certification is conducted twice at an interval of how many hours to confirm irreversibility?
A) 2–4 hours
B) 6–12 hours
C) 12–24 hours
D) 24–48 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 6–12 hours
64. Brain death certification and organ transplantation in India is governed under the guidelines of which body?
A) Medical Council of India (MCI)
B) National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO)
C) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
D) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO)
65. Ecocide is currently NOT recognised under which international legal instrument?
A) UNCLOS
B) Paris Agreement
C) Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
D) Convention on Biological Diversity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
66. Which country was the first in the world to codify ecocide as a criminal offence?
A) France
B) Belgium
C) Russia
D) Vietnam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Vietnam
67. India has not signed the Rome Statute. Which landmark Supreme Court case (2024) recognised the right against adverse climate change under Articles 14 & 21?
A) Vellore Citizens Forum v. Union of India
B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
C) M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India
D) T.N. Godavarman v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India
68. Which of the following is cited as a classic historical example of ecocide?
A) Chernobyl nuclear disaster
B) Use of Agent Orange during the Vietnam War
C) Fukushima nuclear incident
D) Three Gorges Dam construction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Use of Agent Orange during the Vietnam War
69. Which landmark case recognised the ‘right to speedy trial’ as a fundamental right and is associated with the emergence of PIL in India?
A) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
C) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
D) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
70. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) derives its constitutional basis from which Articles?
A) Article 14 and Article 19
B) Article 21 and Article 22
C) Article 32 and Article 226
D) Article 39A and Article 51A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 32 and Article 226
71. The concept of ‘locus standi’ in traditional litigation refers to which requirement?
A) Requirement of legal representation
B) Legal right of the party to approach the court
C) Filing of an affidavit with the petition
D) Payment of court fees before filing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Legal right of the party to approach the court
72. Underground Coal Gasification (UCG) converts coal into syngas directly within underground coal seams. This is best described as a/an:
A) Ex-situ refining process
B) In-situ gasification process
C) Surface mining technique
D) Hydrogenation process
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) In-situ gasification process
73. The syngas produced through UCG primarily consists of which gases?
A) CO2, N2, and CH4
B) CO, H2, and CH4
C) SO2, H2, and CO2
D) CH4, NH3, and CO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) CO, H2, and CH4
74. The first Coal Mine Development and Production Agreements with UCG provisions were signed during which round of commercial coal auctions?
A) 10th round
B) 12th round
C) 14th round
D) 16th round
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 14th round
75. Which two companies were allocated mines under the 14th round of commercial coal auctions with UCG provisions?
A) Adani Enterprises and Tata Power
B) Reliance Industries and Axis Energy
C) NTPC and Coal India
D) ONGC and BHEL
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Reliance Industries and Axis Energy
76. According to GRFC 2026, approximately how many people faced acute food insecurity across 47 countries in 2025?
A) ~100 million (9.5%)
B) ~166 million (14.3%)
C) ~266 million (22.9%)
D) ~350 million (30.1%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~266 million (22.9%)
77. GRFC 2026 declared two famines in 2025. This was notable because:
A) It was the first time two famines were declared simultaneously in history
B) It was the first time famines were declared in GRFC history
C) It coincided with a record high in humanitarian funding
D) Both famines were declared in the same country
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) It was the first time famines were declared in GRFC history
78. According to GRFC 2026, what is the largest single driver of food crises affecting the most people globally?
A) Economic shocks
B) Weather extremes and climate change
C) Conflict and insecurity (~147.4 million people affected)
D) Political instability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Conflict and insecurity (~147.4 million people affected)
79. The Global Network Against Food Crises was established in which year?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2016
80. The NCLT (National Company Law Tribunal) was established under which Act?
A) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
B) Companies Act, 2013
C) SEBI Act, 1992
D) Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Companies Act, 2013
81. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the corporate insolvency resolution process must be completed within how many days?
A) 90–180 days
B) 120–240 days
C) 180–330 days
D) 270–360 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 180–330 days
82. The IBC Amendment Act, 2026 introduced the Creditor-Initiated Insolvency Resolution Process (CIIRP). What percentage of creditor approval is required?
A) 33%
B) 51%
C) 66%
D) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 51%
83. Appeals against NCLT orders are heard by which body?
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court directly
C) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
D) Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
84. The Komagata Maru was a ship of which nationality chartered by Baba Gurdit Singh in 1914?
A) British
B) Canadian
C) Japanese
D) Indian
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Japanese
85.The Continuous Journey Regulation (1908) of Canada effectively targeted which group of immigrants?
A) European immigrants only
B) Asian immigrants, including Indians
C) African immigrants
D) Latin American immigrants
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Asian immigrants, including Indians
86. The Budge Budge Tragedy (1914) associated with the Komagata Maru incident occurred near which city?
A) Mumbai
B) Chennai
C) Kolkata (Calcutta)
D) Lahore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Kolkata (Calcutta)
87. The Komagata Maru incident is historically linked to the strengthening of which Indian revolutionary movement?
A) Swadeshi Movement
B) Quit India Movement
C) Ghadar Movement
D) Non-Cooperation Movement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ghadar Movement
88. According to the WRI Report 2025, approximately how many hectares of primary rainforest were lost in 2025?
A) 1.2 million hectares
B) 2.5 million hectares
C) 4.3 million hectares
D) 6.8 million hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 4.3 million hectares
89. Current deforestation levels are approximately how much above the threshold needed to meet the Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration target of halting forest loss by 2030?
A) ~30%
B) ~50%
C) ~70%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~70%
90. Sabastian Sawe created history at the London Marathon 2026 by clocking what timing o become the first athlete to officially break the two-hour barrier?
A) 1:58:45
B) 1:59:30
C) 1:59:58
D) 2:00:01
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1:59:30
91. A ‘Super El Niño’ is defined by which Sea Surface Temperature (SST) anomaly threshold?
A) > +0.5°C above normal
B) > +1°C above normal
C) > +2°C above normal
D) > +3°C above normal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) > +2°C above normal
92. El Niño is a part of which broader climate oscillation system?
A) Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC)
B) El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
C) Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)
D) North Atlantic Oscillation (NAO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
93. The ‘Bjerknes Feedback’ during El Niño refers to which process?
A) A negative feedback that moderates Pacific warming
B) A positive feedback loop where ocean warming leads to weaker trade winds and further warming
C) A feedback mechanism linking Arctic ice melt with monsoon variability
D) A cyclical reversal of trade wind direction causing La Niña
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) A positive feedback loop where ocean warming leads to weaker trade winds and further warming
94. The Southwest Monsoon (June–September) contributes approximately what percentage of India’s annual rainfall?
A) ~45%
B) ~55%
C) ~70%
D) ~85%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~70%
95. Historically, out of every 10 El Niño events, how many have led to a weaker monsoon in India?
A) 3 out of 10
B) 5 out of 10
C) 7 out of 10
D) 9 out of 10
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7 out of 10
96. Lipulekh Pass is situated at the tri-junction of which three regions?
A) India (Himachal Pradesh), Nepal, and Tibet (China)
B) India (Uttarakhand), Nepal, and Tibet (China)
C) India (Sikkim), Nepal, and Tibet (China)
D) India (Uttarakhand), Bhutan, and Tibet (China)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India (Uttarakhand), Nepal, and Tibet (China)
97. Lipulekh Pass was opened as a trade route between India and China in which year?
A) 1954
B) 1988
C) 1992
D) 2000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1992
98. Nepal’s territorial claim over Lipulekh, Kalapani and Limpiyadhura is based on which historical treaty?
A) Treaty of Titalia (1817)
B) Treaty of Sugauli (1816)
C) Treaty of Kathmandu (1923)
D) Simla Convention (1914)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Treaty of Sugauli (1816)
99. The core dispute between India and Nepal over the Kali River in the Sugauli Treaty context relates to:
A) Ownership of irrigation rights over the Kali River
B) Disagreement over the origin/source of the Kali (Mahakali) River determining the western boundary
C) Sharing of hydropower revenues from dams on the Kali River
D) Navigation rights on the Kali River for trade purposes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Disagreement over the origin/source of the Kali (Mahakali) River determining the westernboundary
100. Kailash Mansarovar Yatra via Lipulekh Pass has been operational since which year?
A) 1947
B) 1954
C) 1962
D) 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1954
101. The notification allowing 100% FDI in the insurance sector follows which legislation enacted in 2025?
A) Insurance (Amendment) Act, 2025
B) Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Act, 2025
C) IRDAI Reforms and Liberalisation Act, 2025
D) Foreign Exchange Management (Insurance) Amendment Act, 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Act, 2025
102. Under the new framework, 100% FDI in the insurance sector is permitted through which route?
A) Government approval route only
B) FIPB approval route
C) Automatic route
D) Special Economic Zone route
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Automatic route
103. The foreign investment cap in Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) remains fixed at:
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 49%
D) 74%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 20%
104. Under the new 100% FDI framework, which of the following managerial requirements must be fulfilled?
A) The majority of the Board of Directors must be Indian citizens
B) At least one key managerial position (Chairperson/MD/CEO) must be held by a Resident Indian citizen
C) All financial decisions must be approved by IRDAI before implementation
D) The CFO must mandatorily be an Indian citizen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) At least one key managerial position (Chairperson/MD/CEO) must be held by a Resident Indian citizen
105. India’s current insurance penetration stands at approximately what percentage of GDP?
A) ~1%
B) ~2%
C) ~4%
D) ~7%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~4%
106. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act was enacted in which year?
A) 2014
B) 2016
C) 2018
D) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2018
107. What is the minimum economic threshold (value of offence) for a person to be declared a Fugitive Economic Offender?
A) ₹10 crore
B) ₹50 crore
C) ₹100 crore
D) ₹500 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹100 crore
108. Who files the application to declare a person as a Fugitive Economic Offender before the Special Court?
A) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
B) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
C) A Director or Deputy Director under PMLA, 2002
D) Income Tax Department
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) A Director or Deputy Director under PMLA, 2002
109. Under the FEO Act, which of the following is a key distinction from the PMLA regarding burden of proof?
A) Under FEO Act, the accused must prove innocence; under PMLA, the ED must prove guilt
B) Under FEO Act, ED must prove the individual qualifies as a fugitive; under PMLA, the accused
must prove innocence of assets
C) Both FEO Act and PMLA place the burden of proof equally on both parties
D) Under FEO Act, burden of proof lies with the Special Court; under PMLA, it lies with the ED
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Under FEO Act, ED must prove the individual qualifies as a fugitive; under PMLA, the accused must prove innocence of assets
110. Under the FEO Act, the Special Court has powers to confiscate assets. What is notable about this confiscation power?
A) It applies only after final conviction
B) It is limited to proceeds of crime only
C) It can occur before conviction, and also includes legitimate properties
D) It applies only to foreign assets, not domestic ones
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) It can occur before conviction, and also includes legitimate properties
111. Mission Drishti was developed by which Indian company?
A) Skyroot Aerospace
B) Agnikul Cosmos
C) GalaxEye
D) Pixxel India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) GalaxEye
112. Mission Drishti was launched aboard which rocket?
A) ISRO PSLV-C60
B) SpaceX Falcon 9
C) Ariane 6
D) Rocket Lab Electron
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) SpaceX Falcon 9
113.The ‘OptoSAR’ technology integrates which two imaging systems into a single satellite platform?
A) Infrared Imaging and GPS Navigation
B) Electro-Optical (EO) imaging and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
C) LiDAR and Multispectral Imaging
D) Hyperspectral Imaging and Radio Frequency Sensing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Electro-Optical (EO) imaging and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
114. The onboard AI processing unit on Mission Drishti is powered by which hardware?
A) Intel Xeon Processor
B) AMD EPYC Chip
C) NVIDIA Jetson Orin
D) Qualcomm Snapdragon Space Platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) NVIDIA Jetson Orin
115. INS Mahendragiri is the _ stealth frigate inducted under Project 17A.
A) 3rd
B) 4th
C) 5th
D) 6th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 6th
116. INS Mahendragiri belongs to which class of stealth frigates?
A) Shivalik-class
B) Talwar-class
C) Nilgiri-class
D) Kamorta-class
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Nilgiri-class
117. INS Mahendragiri was built by which shipyard?
A) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata
B) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
C) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)
D) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai
118. The indigenous content in INS Mahendragiri is approximately:
A) ~45%
B) ~60%
C) ~75%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~75%
119. Project 17A frigates are an upgraded version of which earlier project?
A) Project 15 (Delhi-class Destroyers)
B) Project 16 (Godavari-class Frigates)
C) Project 17 (Shivalik-class Frigates)
D) Project 28 (Kamorta-class Corvettes)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Project 17 (Shivalik-class Frigates)
120. Which other trade route pass besides Lipulekh was opened for India–China trade in 2006?
A) Shipki La
B) Jelep La
C) Nathu La
D) Rohtang La
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Nathu La
121. India hosts how many of the eight Ashtamahasthanas (sacred Buddhist sites)?
A) 5 out of 8
B) 6 out of 8
C) 7 out of 8
D) All 8
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 7 out of 8
122. Which of the eight Ashtamahasthanas is located OUTSIDE India?
A) Bodh Gaya (Enlightenment)
B) Kushinagar (Mahaparinirvana)
C) Sarnath (First Sermon)
D) Lumbini (Birthplace)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Lumbini (Birthplace)
123. Despite hosting 7 out of 8 sacred Buddhist sites, India attracts approximately what percentage of global Buddhist tourist arrivals?
A) ~2%
B) ~6%
C) ~12%
D) ~20%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) ~6%
124. India’s ‘Relic Diplomacy’ involves which of the following?
A) Establishing Buddhist universities abroad
B) Loaning sacred relics such as Piprahwa relics to build cultural goodwill with Southeast and East
Asia
C) Funding Buddhist temples in ASEAN countries
D) Granting diplomatic visas to Buddhist monks from neighbouring countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Loaning sacred relics such as Piprahwa relics to build cultural goodwill with Southeast and East Asia
125. The revival of Nalanda University is positioned in India’s Buddhist Diplomacy primarily as:
A) A heritage tourism initiative
B) Knowledge Diplomacy — repositioning India as a global Buddhist learning hub
C) A counter-terrorism cooperation platform
D) A platform to promote Yoga and Ayurveda alongside Buddhism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Knowledge Diplomacy — repositioning India as a global Buddhist learning hub
126. The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in India derives its enforcement authority from which Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 19
B) Article 226
C) Article 324
D) Article 329
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Article 324
127. What is the legal status of the Model Code of Conduct in India?
A) It is a statutory law passed by Parliament
B) It is a constitutional provision under Schedule VII
C) It is non-statutory, enforced through ECI’s constitutional powers
D) It is a directive principle enforceable by the Supreme Court
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) It is non-statutory, enforced through ECI’s constitutional powers
128. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court describe Article 324 as a ‘reservoir of power’ for the Election Commission of India?
A) Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978)
B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)
C) Harbans Singh Jalal v. Union of India (1997)
D) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978)
129. As per the Harbans Singh Jalal v. Union of India (1997) judgment, from when does the MCC come into effect?
A) Date of filing of nomination papers
B) Date of announcement of the election schedule
C) Date of declaration of results
D) Date of issuance of gazette notification
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Date of announcement of the election schedule
130. Which of the following is explicitly prohibited under the Model Code of Conduct?
A) Political parties organising public rallies
B) Combining official government visits with election campaigning
C) Issuing election manifestos after nomination filing
D) Conducting exit polls after polling ends
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Combining official government visits with election campaigning
131. The Whitley Awards are conferred by which organisation and are popularly known as:
A) WWF; ‘Blue Planet Awards’
B) Whitley Fund for Nature; ‘Green Oscars’
C) IUCN; ‘Conservation Excellence Awards’
D) UNEP; ‘Champions of the Earth’
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Whitley Fund for Nature; ‘Green Oscars’
132. The Whitley Awards primarily recognise which category of conservationists?
A) Scientists from developed nations publishing biodiversity research
B) Grassroots conservation leaders from the Global South
C) Government wildlife officials with 25+ years of service
D) Corporate sustainability leaders from emerging economies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Grassroots conservation leaders from the Global South
133. Who was the first Indian winner of the Whitley Award?
A) Purnima Devi Barman (2024)
B) Y Nuklu Phom (2021)
C) Vivek Menon (2001)
D) Parveen Shaikh (2026)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Vivek Menon (2001)
134. The Indian Skimmer (Rynchops albicollis) has what IUCN Conservation Status?
A) Vulnerable
B) Near Threatened
C) Critically Endangered
D) Endangered
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Endangered
135. Approximately what percentage of the global Indian Skimmer population is found in India?
A) ~40%
B) ~60%
C) ~75%
D) ~90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) ~90%
136. India’s first Multi-Lane Free Flow (MLFF) tolling system was launched at which toll plaza?
A) Khed toll plaza on NH-48 (Pune–Mumbai stretch)
B) Choryasi toll plaza on NH-48 (Surat–Bharuch stretch, Gujarat)
C) Dasna toll plaza on NH-9 (Delhi–Meerut stretch)
D) Vashi toll plaza on NH-4 (Mumbai–Pune stretch)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Choryasi toll plaza on NH-48 (Surat–Bharuch stretch, Gujarat)
137. The MLFF system was developed by which institution?
A) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
B) State Bank of India
C) ICICI Bank
D) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) directly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ICICI Bank
138. Which technology is used in the MLFF system to capture vehicle registration numbers for compliance even without FASTag?
A) GPS Tracking System
B) Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) cameras
C) Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) beacons
D) Dedicated Short-Range Communication (DSRC)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) cameras
139. The FASTag technology used in the MLFF system is based on which principle?
A) Near Field Communication (NFC)
B) Bluetooth Signal Recognition
C) Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
D) QR Code Scanning
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
140. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) was originally launched in which year?
A) 2005
B) 2008
C) 2013
D) 2017
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2013
141. Under which national health programme does RBSK function?
A) Ayushman Bharat Mission
B) National Health Mission (NHM)
C) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
D) Janani Suraksha Yojana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) National Health Mission (NHM)
142. The target age group covered under RBSK is:
A) 0–6 years
B) 0–14 years
C) 0–18 years
D) 5–18 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 0–18 years
143. The core strategy of RBSK is built around the ‘4 Ds’. Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Ds?
A) Defects at birth
B) Diseases
C) Deficiencies
D) Dietary disorders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Dietary disorders
144. Project Deepak, which recently celebrated its 66th Raising Day, was established in which year?
A) 1947
B) 1955
C) 1961
D) 1971
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1961
145. Project Deepak focuses on infrastructure development in which region?
A) Eastern Himalayas and Arunachal Pradesh
B) Western Himalayas
C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
D) Northeast India border areas with Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Western Himalayas
146. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established in which year?
A) 1947
B) 1955
C) 1960
D) 1965
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1960
147. BRO functions under which Ministry of the Government of India?
A) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Defence
D) Ministry of External Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Defence
148. ‘Project Freedom’, recently launched by the United States, aims to ensure freedom of navigation in which strategically vital waterway?
A) Strait of Malacca
B) Strait of Hormuz
C) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
D) Strait of Gibraltar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Strait of Hormuz
149. The Indian Skimmer is listed under which Schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, providing it the highest level of protection in India?
A) Schedule II
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule I
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Schedule I
150. The International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) serves India’s Buddhist Diplomacy primarily as a platform for:
A) Training Buddhist monks for diplomatic postings
B) Pan-Asian Buddhist cooperation under institutional multilateralism
C) Managing UNESCO heritage status of Buddhist sites
D) Coordinating Buddhist tourism circuits across South Asia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Pan-Asian Buddhist cooperation under institutional multilateralism
151. The Union Cabinet approved a bill to increase the strength of the Supreme Court from 34 to how many judges?
A) 36
B) 38
C) 40
D) 42
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 38
152. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to increase the number of Supreme Court judges?
A) Article 121
B) Article 124
C) Article 129
D) Article 131
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Article 124
153. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act was originally enacted in which year?
A) 1950
B) 1952
C) 1956
D) 1960
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1956
154. What type of majority is required in Parliament to pass the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill?
A) Special majority (2/3rd of total membership)
B) Absolute majority (50%+1 of total membership)
C) Simple majority (majority of members present and voting)
D) Unanimous consent of both Houses
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Simple majority (majority of members present and voting)
155. In which year was the Supreme Court judge strength last increased from 31 to 34?
A) 2009
B) 2014
C) 2019
D) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2019
156. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Chief Minister appointed by the Governor?
A) Article 153
B) Article 161
C) Article 163
D) Article 164
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Article 164
157. Article 163 of the Constitution specifies that the Council of Ministers headed by the CM:
A) Is independently elected by the State Legislature
B) Aids and advises the Governor in exercise of his functions
C) Is accountable only to the President of India
D) Can override the Governor’s decisions in all matters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Aids and advises the Governor in exercise of his functions
158. Under Article 167, the Chief Minister is obligated to:
A) Submit a monthly report to the President
B) Communicate Cabinet decisions and information sought by the Governor
C) Present the annual budget personally in the Legislature
D) Seek the Governor’s approval for all Cabinet appointments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Communicate Cabinet decisions and information sought by the Governor
159. If a Chief Minister loses majority in the Legislature but refuses to resign, which of the following is a constitutional option available to the Governor?
A) The Governor must wait for the legislature’s term to expire
B) The Governor can directly recommend President’s Rule without seeking floor test
C) The Governor may ask the CM to prove majority on the floor of the House
D) The Governor can appoint a new CM without dismissing the incumbent
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) The Governor may ask the CM to prove majority on the floor of the House
160. Under Article 172, the normal tenure of a State Legislative Assembly is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years unless dissolved earlier
C) 6 years
D) 5 years with no provision for early dissolution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 5 years unless dissolved earlier
161. The World Migration Report 2026 was released by which organisation?
A) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
B) International Organization for Migration (IOM)
C) United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA)
D) World Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) International Organization for Migration (IOM)
162. According to the World Migration Report 2026, total international migrants reached approximately how many people?
A) ~210 million
B) ~250 million
C) ~304 million
D) ~350 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ~304 million
163. Forced displacement worldwide crossed how many people as per the report?
A) 80 million
B) 100 million
C) 120 million
D) 150 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 120 million
164. India remained the world’s top remittance recipient, receiving approximately how much in 2024?
A) USD 87 billion
B) USD 110 billion
C) USD 137 billion
D) USD 165 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) USD 137 billion
165. Which two migration corridors are cited as major corridors for India?
A) India–UK (professionals) and India–Australia (students)
B) India–UAE (mainly migrant workers) and India–US (skilled professionals and students)
C) India–Gulf (unskilled labour) and India–Canada (refugees)
D) India–Saudi Arabia (workers) and India–Germany (engineers)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) India–UAE (mainly migrant workers) and India–US (skilled professionals and students)
166. The International Labour Organization (ILO) was founded in which year?
A) 1910
B) 1919
C) 1945
D) 1948
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1919
167. The ILO is headquartered in which city?
A) New York
B) Vienna
C) Geneva
D) Brussels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Geneva
168. Article 24 of the ILO Constitution allows which entities to file a complaint against a member country?
A) Any individual worker
B) Industrial associations of workers or employers’ organisations
C) Any member country’s government
D) United Nations Security Council
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Industrial associations of workers or employers’ organisations
169. The committee constituted under Article 24 of the ILO follows which structural composition?
A) Bilateral committee (complainant + government)
B) Five-member independent expert panel
C) Tripartite committee (governments, employers, workers)
D) Single ILO Director-General investigation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Tripartite committee (governments, employers, workers)
170. The Tea Act, 1953 established which body to regulate cultivation, production, sale, and export of Indian tea?
A) Tea Export Council
B) Tea Board of India
C) APEDA Tea Division
D) Ministry of Commerce Tea Regulatory Authority
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Tea Board of India
171. Under the revised SOP for FDI approvals, government approval must be cleared within how many weeks?
A) 4 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 16 weeks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 12 weeks
172. Under the ‘presumed consent rule’ in the new SOP, if ministries or RBI do not respond within 8 weeks, what happens?
A) The application is automatically rejected
B) Approval may proceed through deemed concurrence
C) The case is referred to the Supreme Court
D) DPIIT conducts a special review hearing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Approval may proceed through deemed concurrence
173. No prior approval is needed for equity increases up to what amount if ownership structure remains unchanged?
A) ₹1,000 crore
B) ₹2,500 crore
C) ₹5,000 crore
D) ₹10,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) ₹5,000 crore
174. India’s Manufacturing PMI rose to 54.7 in April 2026. What does a PMI reading above 50 indicate?
A) Contraction in economic activity
B) No change in economic conditions
C) Expansion/Growth in economic activity
D) Inflationary pressure only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Expansion/Growth in economic activity
175. India’s Manufacturing PMI for India is compiled by which organisation?
A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
C) S&P Global
D) National Statistical Office (NSO)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) S&P Global
176. The Mission for Cotton Productivity (2026–31) is popularly called:
A) Kapas Shakti
B) Kapas Kanti
C) Cotton India 2030
D) Sutra Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Kapas Kanti
177. India’s ‘5F Vision’ for cotton refers to which chain?
A) Farming → Fibre → Factory → Fashion → Foreign
B) Field → Fabric → Factory → Fashion → Foreign
C) Farm → Fibre → Factory → Fashion → Foreign
D) Farming → Fabric → Finishing → Fashion → Foreign
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Farm → Fibre → Factory → Fashion → Foreign
178. The Mission for Cotton Productivity initially covers how many districts across how many states?
A) 100 districts across 10 states
B) 120 districts across 12 states
C) 140 districts across 14 states
D) 160 districts across 16 states
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 140 districts across 14 states
179. India’s first portable MRI system was introduced at which institution?
A) AIIMS Mumbai
B) AIIMS Delhi
C) PGIMER Chandigarh
D) JIPMER Puducherry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) AIIMS Delhi
180. Udant Martand, India’s first Hindi newspaper, was launched in which year and from which city?
A) 1820, Delhi
B) 1823, Bombay
C) 1826, Kolkata
D) 1830, Lucknow
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 1826, Kolkata
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