Practice the December 2025 4th Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the forth week of December 2025.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 22 to 31 December features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
4th Week of December 2025: Current Affairs Quiz
1. Where was the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine concluded?
a) Geneva
b) New York
c) New Delhi
d) Beijing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) New Delhi
2. What is MAISP?
a) Medical AYUSH Investment Support Program
b) My AYUSH Integrated Services Portal
c) Ministry of AYUSH Information System Portal
d) Multi-Agency AYUSH Support Platform
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) My AYUSH Integrated Services Portal
3. The AYUSH Mark is proposed as:
a) A certification for AYUSH practitioners
b) A global quality benchmark for AYUSH products and services
c) A trademark for Indian traditional medicine
d) An award for excellence in traditional medicine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) A global quality benchmark for AYUSH products and services
4. What does AYUSH stand for?
a) Advanced Yoga and Universal Scientific Healthcare
b) Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Homoeopathy
c) Alternative Yogic and Unani System of Healthcare
d) Ayurvedic Yoga Union for Scientific Health
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Homoeopathy
5. What is the economic value of India’s Traditional Medicine Systems?
a) ~$25 billion
b) ~$43.4 billion
c) ~$60 billion
d) ~$15 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ~$43.4 billion
6. When was the National AYUSH Mission (NAM) launched?
a) 2010
b) 2012
c) 2014
d) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2014
7. What is the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Strategy timeline mentioned?
a) 2020-2030
b) 2023-2033
c) 2025-2034
d) 2024-2035
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2025-2034
8. Which initiative supports Research & capacity building in AYUSH?
a) AYUSH Grid
b) Ayurgyan
c) TKDL
d) MVT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ayurgyan
9. What does TKDL stand for?
a) Traditional Knowledge Database Library
b) Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
c) Technical Knowledge Development Library
d) Traditional Kerala Digital Library
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
10. The Delhi Declaration recognizes traditional medicine as:
a) National heritage
b) Shared biocultural heritage
c) International property
d) Scientific advancement
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Shared biocultural heritage
11. What was the OLD flat-rate premium under the deposit insurance system?
a) 10 paise per ₹100
b) 12 paise per ₹100
c) 15 paise per ₹100
d) 20 paise per ₹100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 12 paise per ₹100
12. How much of the India-Bangladesh border remains unfenced?
a) Government banks
b) Foreign banks
c) Safer, well-managed banks
d) All banks pay the same
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Safer, well-managed banks
13. What is the maximum insurance cover per depositor per bank under DICGC?
a) ₹2 lakh
b) ₹3 lakh
c) ₹5 lakh
d) ₹10 lakh
Correct Answer: c) ₹5 lakh
14. DICGC stands for:
a) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Committee
b) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
c) Deposit Investment and Credit Guarantee Council
d) Deposit Insurance and Commercial Guarantee Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
15. DICGC functions under which Act?
a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
c) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961
d) Banking Companies Act, 1970
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961
16. Who pays the deposit insurance premium?
a) Depositors
b) Banks
c) RBI
d) Government of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Banks
17. Which type of deposits are EXCLUDED from DICGC coverage?
a) Savings deposits
b) Fixed deposits
c) Deposits of Central/State Governments
d) Recurring deposits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Deposits of Central/State Governments
18. Which of the following banks is NOT covered under DICGC?
a) Commercial banks
b) Regional Rural Banks
c) Primary cooperative societies
d) State Cooperative Banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Primary cooperative societies
19. The Supreme Court case regarding CSR and environmental responsibility was:
a) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
b) MK Ranjitsinh & Others v. Union of India
c) MC Mehta v. Union of India
d) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) MK Ranjitsinh & Others v. Union of India
20. Which Constitutional Article mandates protection of natural environment?
a) Article 48A
b) Article 51A(g)
c) Article 21
d) Article 39
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Article 51A(g)
21. CSR is governed by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
a) Section 125
b) Section 135
c) Section 145
d) Section 155
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Section 135
22. Companies must spend at least what percentage of average net profits on CSR?
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2%
23. According to the Supreme Court, environmental protection through CSR is:
a) A voluntary activity
b) A philanthropic gesture
c) A constitutional duty
d) An optional contribution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) A constitutional duty
24. The Polluter Pays Principle requires companies to bear costs of:
a) Only in-situ conservation
b) Only ex-situ conservation
c) Both in-situ and ex-situ conservation
d) Neither in-situ nor ex-situ conservation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Both in-situ and ex-situ conservation
25. IN-SPACe was established in which year?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2020
26. IN-SPACe functions under which department?
a) Department of Science and Technology
b) Department of Space
c) Ministry of External Affairs
d) Prime Minister’s Office
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Department of Space
27. What does NGE stand for in the context of IN-SPACe?
a) National Government Enterprises
b) Non-Governmental Entities
c) New Generation Enterprises
d) Non-Governmental Establishments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Non-Governmental Entities
28. The primary mandate of IN-SPACe is to:
a) Conduct space missions
b) Manufacture satellites
c) Facilitate private and academic participation in space activities
d) Train astronauts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Facilitate private and academic participation in space activities
29. BoPS will be constituted as a statutory body under which Act?
a) Indian Ports Act, 1908
b) Merchant Shipping Act, 2025
c) Major Port Trusts Act, 1963
d) Coastal Regulation Zone Act, 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Merchant Shipping Act, 2025
30. BoPS is designed on the lines of which organization?
a) Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D)
b) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
c) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
d) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
31. According to the new definition, what is the minimum elevation required for a landform to be classified as an Aravalli Hill?
a) 50 metres above local relief
b) 100 metres above local relief
c) 150 metres above local relief
d) 200 metres above local relief
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 100 metres above local relief
32. What percentage of the Aravalli landscape is brought under protection by the new definition?
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) Over 90%
d) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 90%
33. According to the new definition, an Aravalli Range is defined as:
a) A single hill with elevation above 100 metres
b) Two or more Aravalli Hills located within 500 metres of each other
c) Three or more hills within 1 km of each other
d) Any continuous geological formation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Two or more Aravalli Hills located within 500 metres of each other
34. Which organization is tasked with preparing the Management Plan for Sustainable Mining (MPSM) for the Aravalli landscape?
a) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
b) Forest Survey of India (FSI)
c) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
35. The MPSM for Aravalli is to be modeled on which forest’s management plan?
a) Jim Corbett Forest, Uttarakhand
b) Saranda Forest, Jharkhand
c) Sundarbans, West Bengal
d) Silent Valley, Kerala
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Saranda Forest, Jharkhand
36. What is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range?
a) Mount Abu
b) Guru Shikhar
c) Achalgarh
d) Dilwara Peak
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Guru Shikhar
37. The Aravalli Range extends for approximately:
a) 500 km
b) 650 km
c) Over 800 km
d) 1000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 800 km
38. The Aravalli Range passes through which states? (Select the correct combination)
a) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi
c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Haryana
d) Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi
39. The Aravalli Range belongs to which geological period?
a) Cambrian
b) Pre-Cambrian
c) Jurassic
d) Tertiary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Pre-Cambrian
40. The Matri Van Initiative is being developed under which programme?
a) Van Mahotsav
b) Green India Mission
c) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
d) Nagar Van Yojana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
41. What is the width of the green buffer proposed under the Aravalli Green Wall Project?
a) 3 km
b) 5 km
c) 7 km
d) 10 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 5 km
42. Which Supreme Court case is famous for restricting mining activities in the Aravalli region?
a) Vishakha v. Union of India
b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
c) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
d) T.N. Godavarman v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
43. Mining is absolutely prohibited in which of the following under the new Aravalli definition?
a) Only Protected Areas
b) Only Tiger Reserves
c) Protected Areas, Eco-Sensitive Zones, Tiger Reserves, Wetlands, CAMPA plantation areas
d) All areas of Aravalli without exception
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Protected Areas, Eco-Sensitive Zones, Tiger Reserves, Wetlands, CAMPA plantation areas
44. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) was enacted in which year?
a) 2000
b) 2006
c) 2010
d) 2013
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2006
45. According to PCMA 2006, what is the minimum age of marriage for females in India?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) 25 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 18 years
46. According to PCMA 2006, what is the minimum age of marriage for males in India?
a) 18 years
b) 21 years
c) 22 years
d) 25 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 21 years
47. According to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC), a child is defined as any person below:
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) 25 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 18 years
48. What was the percentage of child marriages in India according to NFHS data 2019-21?
a) 47.4%
b) 26.8%
c) 23.3%
d) 15.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 23.3%
49. Which state is NOT mentioned as having high prevalence of child marriage?
a) West Bengal
b) Bihar
c) Tripura
d) Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Uttar Pradesh
50. PCMA 2006 empowers states to appoint which officers?
a) Child Protection Officers
b) Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs)
c) Child Welfare Officers
d) Child Rights Officers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs)
51. Which model showcased community-led prevention of child marriage with 75 Gram Panchayats declared ‘Child Marriage-Free’?
a) Raipur Model
b) Surajpur Model
c) Bilaspur Model
d) Durg Model
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Surajpur Model
52. The Surajpur Model for child marriage prevention is from which state?
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Chhattisgarh
c) Jharkhand
d) Odisha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Chhattisgarh
53. Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) targets elimination of child marriage by 2030?
a) SDG 3
b) SDG 4
c) SDG 5.3
d) SDG 8
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) SDG 5.3
54. Which government scheme focuses on education, awareness and gender empowerment to curb child marriage?
a) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP)
c) Balika Samridhi Yojana
d) Ladli Scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP)
55. FSSAI functions under which ministry?
a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
b) Ministry of Agriculture
c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
56. FSSAI was established under which Act?
a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2004
b) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
c) Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
d) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
57. What is the nature of FSSAI?
a) Constitutional body
b) Statutory body
c) Non-statutory body
d) Autonomous society
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Non-statutory body
58. How many members are there in the FSSAI Food Authority?
a) 15
b) 18
c) 22
d) 25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 22
59. What proportion of FSSAI members must be women?
a) One-fourth
b) One-third
c) Half
d) Two-thirds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) One-third
60. The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is located in:
a) Dwarka, Gujarat
b) Lothal, Gujarat
c) Porbandar, Gujarat
d) Mandvi, Gujarat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Lothal, Gujarat
61. How much was spent on outward remittances for studying abroad in 2023-24?
a) USD 2.5 billion
b) USD 3.4 billion
c) USD 4.2 billion
d) USD 5.0 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) USD 3.4 billion
62. What percentage of India’s higher education budget was spent on studying abroad?
a) 43%
b) 48%
c) 53%
d) 58%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 53%
63. What percentage of Indian students does the policy aim to provide world-class education domestically?
a) 90%
b) 95%
c) 97%
d) 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 97%
64. What is the size of the Bharat Vidya Kosh sovereign research fund?
a) $5 billion
b) $7 billion
c) $10 billion
d) $15 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) $10 billion
65. How many Central Universities are designated as Country Centres of Excellence (CoEs)?
a) 45
b) 50
c) 54
d) 60
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 54
66. What does AAN stand for in “Bharat ki AAN”?
a) Academic Ambassador Network
b) Alumni Ambassador Network
c) Academic Achievement Network
d) Alumni Achievement Network
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Alumni Ambassador Network
67. The Vishwa Bandhu Scholarship is designed to attract:
a) Undergraduate students only
b) PhD scholars only
c) Global researchers and master’s students
d) Faculty members only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Global researchers and master’s students
68. Which ranking system is recommended to be revised to include internationalization metrics?
a) QS World Rankings
b) Times Higher Education Rankings
c) NIRF
d) Shanghai Rankings
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) NIRF
69. The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator was introduced by:
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
d) Ministry of Finance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
70. How much money has FRI prevented from being lost to cyber fraud?
a) ₹450 Crore
b) ₹550 Crore
c) ₹660 Crore
d) ₹750 Crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ₹660 Crore
71. FRI classifies mobile numbers into how many risk categories?
a) Two (High and Low)
b) Three (Medium, High, Very High)
c) Four (Low, Medium, High, Very High)
d) Five risk levels
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Three (Medium, High, Very High)
72. How many organizations are covered under the Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP)?
a) Over 500
b) Over 750
c) Over 1000
d) Over 1500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 1000
73. How many State/UT police forces are connected to the Digital Intelligence Platform?
a) 28
b) 32
c) 36
d) 40
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 36
74. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under which ministry?
a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c) Ministry of Communications
d) Ministry of Finance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Home Affairs
75. Which initiative empowers mobile subscribers to report suspected fraud via features like Chakshu?
a) Cyber Suraksha
b) Sanchar Sarthi
c) Digital Raksha
d) Mobile Suraksha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Sanchar Sarthi
76. The Samanvaya Platform provides:
a) Mobile banking services
b) Analytics-based interstate linkages of criminals and cybercrimes
c) Cybersecurity training
d) Digital payment solutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Analytics-based interstate linkages of criminals and cybercrimes
77. PESA Act was enacted in which year?
a) 1992
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 2006
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1996
78. PESA extends Panchayati Raj to areas covered under which Article?
a) Article 243
b) Article 244
c) Article 245
d) Article 246
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Article 244
79. Under PESA, whose mandatory consent is required for land acquisition?
a) District Collector
b) State Government
c) Gram Sabha
d) Tribal Affairs Ministry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Gram Sabha
80. When was the PESA-GPDP Portal launched?
a) January 2024
b) June 2024
c) September 2024
d) December 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) September 2024
81. Which university houses a Centre of Excellence for PESA capacity-building?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru University
b) Indira Gandhi National Tribal University
c) University of Delhi
d) Banaras Hindu University
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Indira Gandhi National Tribal University
82. PESA training manuals have been translated into which tribal language?
a) Santhali
b) Khasi
c) Mizo
d) Bodo
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Santhali
83. The PESA Cell functions under which ministry?
a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
84. What percentage of Indian exports to New Zealand will have zero-duty market access?
a) 75%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) 100%
85. The India-New Zealand FTA includes a first-ever annex on:
a) Digital trade
b) Health and traditional medicine services
c) Climate change cooperation
d) Defence cooperation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Health and traditional medicine services
86. How many temporary employment entry visas are provided for professionals?
a) Up to 3,000
b) Up to 5,000
c) Up to 7,000
d) Up to 10,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Up to 5,000
87. What is New Zealand’s investment commitment over 15 years?
a) USD 10 billion
b) USD 15 billion
c) USD 20 billion
d) USD 25 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) USD 20 billion
88. The Agricultural Productivity Partnership aims to:
a) Export Indian grains to New Zealand
b) Improve farm efficiency and integrate Indian farmers into global supply chains
c) Transfer farming technology from New Zealand to India
d) Establish joint agricultural research centers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Improve farm efficiency and integrate Indian farmers into global supply chains
89. The Accra Convention 2025 was adopted by:
a) World Trade Organization
b) United Nations
c) International Maritime Organization
d) World Customs Organization
Show Answer
Correct Answer:b) United Nations
90. Negotiable Cargo Documents (NCDs) can be used for all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Selling goods mid-journey
b) Rerouting cargo during transit
c) Using as collateral for trade financing
d) Replacing insurance policies ✓
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Replacing insurance policies
91. LVM3-M6 marks which operational flight of ISRO’s LVM3 launch vehicle?
a) Fourth
b) Fifth
c) Sixth
d) Seventh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Sixth
92. The LVM3-M6 mission was launched from:
a) Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
c) Abdul Kalam Island
d) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
93. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) was established in which year?
a) 2015
b) 2017
c) 2019
d) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2019
94. The BlueBird Block-2 satellite belongs to which company?
a) SpaceX
b) AST SpaceMobile
c) OneWeb
d) Blue Origin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) AST SpaceMobile
95. What is the mass of the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?
a) 4,200 kg
b) 5,100 kg
c) 6,100 kg
d) 7,200 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 6,100 kg
96. The BlueBird Block-2 satellite is equipped with a phased-array antenna of what size?
a) 150 square metres
b) 223 square metres
c) 300 square metres
d) 450 square metres
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 223 square metres
97. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) lies at an altitude of approximately:
a) 100-800 km
b) 160-1,000 km
c) 200-1,500 km
d) 500-2,000 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 160-1,000 km
98. What is the payload capacity of LVM3 to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO)?
a) Up to 3,500 kg
b) Up to 4,200 kg
c) Up to 5,000 kg
d) Up to 6,100 kg
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Up to 4,200 kg
99. The total lift-off mass of LVM3 is approximately:
a) 500 tonnes
b) 550 tonnes
c) 640 tonnes
d) 750 tonnes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 640 tonnes
100. What was the year-on-year growth in total IPR applications?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 30%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 20%
101. Approximately how many total IPR filings were received?
a) 5.5 lakh
b) 6.5 lakh
c) 7.5 lakh
d) 8.5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 7.5 lakh
102. How many trademark applications were filed?
a) Over 3.5 lakh
b) Over 4.5 lakh
c) Over 5.5 lakh
d) Over 6.5 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 5.5 lakh
103. What percentage of patent applications were filed by Indian residents?
a) 55.9%
b) 61.9%
c) 67.9%
d) 73.9%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 61.9%
104. How many categories of IPR are recognized under the IPRPM framework?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 8
105. CGPDTM functions under which department?
a) Department of Science and Technology
b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
d) Ministry of Law and Justice
Show Answer
Correct Answer:b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
106. The National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission (NIPAM) aims to educate:
a) 500,000 students
b) 1 million students
c) 2 million students
d) 5 million students
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1 million students
107. What is IP Saarthi?
a) An IP registration portal
b) An AI-enabled chatbot for IP guidance
c) An IP training program
d) An IP funding scheme
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) An AI-enabled chatbot for IP guidance
108. The National IPR Policy was implemented in which year?
a) 2014
b) 2016
c) 2018
d) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2016
109. According to the BCG report, how many active digital creators does India have?
a) 1-1.5 million
b) 2-2.5 million
c) 3-3.5 million
d) 4-4.5 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2-2.5 million
110. Creator-led content currently drives approximately how much in consumer spending?
a) $200-250 billion
b) $300-350 billion
c) $350-400 billion
d) $450-500 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) $350-400 billion
111. Average digital content consumption increased from 6.6 hours/week in FY 2020 to how many hours in FY 2024?
a) 8.5 hours/week
b) 9.5 hours/week
c) 10.9 hours/week
d) 12.5 hours/week
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 10.9 hours/week
112. How many brands plan to raise creator marketing budgets by 1.5 to 3 times?
a) Around 50%
b) Around 60%
c) Around 70%
d) Around 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Around 70%
113. YouTube’s creative ecosystem contributed approximately how much to India’s GDP in 2024?
a) Over ₹10,000 crore
b) Over ₹16,000 crore
c) Over ₹20,000 crore
d) Over ₹25,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Over ₹16,000 crore
114. How many industrial parks does India currently host?
a) Over 2,500
b) Over 3,500
c) Over 4,500
d) Over 5,500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 4,500
115. How many plug-and-play industrial parks are under development under NICDC?
a) 206
b) 256
c) 306
d) 356
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 306
116. What amount was allocated in Union Budget 2025-26 for Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks?
a) ₹1,500 crore
b) ₹2,000 crore
c) ₹2,500 crore
d) ₹3,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ₹2,500 crore
117. The Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) 3.0 was launched in:
a) March 2025
b) June 2025
c) September 2025
d) December 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) September 2025
118. The Group of Monuments at Hampi was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in:
a) 1982
b) 1984
c) 1986
d) 1988
Show Answer
Correct Answer:c) 1986
119.Thanjavur Painting is also known as:
a) Pattachitra
b) Palagai Padam
c) Madhubani
d) Warli
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Palagai Padam
120. The ICAO Council consists of how many member States?
a) 30
b) 33
c) 36
d) 39
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 36
121. The PESA Act was enacted based on the recommendations of which committee?
a) Ashok Mehta Committee
b) Bhuria Committee
c) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
d) G.V.K. Rao Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Bhuria Committee
122. The Bhuria Committee submitted its recommendations in which year?
a) 1993
b) 1995
c) 1997
d) 1999
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1995
123. PESA was designed to bridge the gap left by which Constitutional Amendment?
a) 72nd Amendment
b) 73rd Amendment
c) 74th Amendment
d) 76th Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 73rd Amendment
124. Which ministry functions as the nodal ministry for PESA implementation?
a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
125. PESA is applicable across how many Fifth Schedule States?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 12
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 10
126. Approximately how many villages are covered under PESA?
a) 55,000
b) 65,000
c) 77,500
d) 85,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 77,500
127. PESA addresses governance needs of what percentage of India’s population?
a) 5.6%
b) 6.8%
c) 8.6%
d) 10.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 8.6%
128. How many of the 10 Fifth Schedule States have notified PESA Rules?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 10
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 8
129. Which two states continue to face legal ambiguity regarding PESA Rules?
a) Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
b) Odisha and Jharkhand
c) Rajasthan and Gujarat
d) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Odisha and Jharkhand
130. According to MoPR assessments, what percentage of elected representatives in PESA areas could not explain the role of Gram Sabha?
a) Over 30%
b) Over 40%
c) Over 50%
d) Over 60%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Over 40%
131. What is the total liquidity infusion announced by RBI?
a) ₹2 trillion
b) ₹3 trillion
c) ₹4 trillion
d) ₹5 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ₹3 trillion
132. How much worth of government securities will RBI purchase from banks?
a) ₹1 trillion
b) ₹2 trillion
c) ₹3 trillion
d) ₹4 trillion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ₹2 trillion
133. How much dollar amount will RBI buy from banks in the Dollar-Rupee Swap?
a) $5 billion
b) $7 billion
c) $10 billion
d) $15 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) $10 billion
134. After how many years will the dollars be sold back to banks in the swap arrangement?
a) Two years
b) Three years
c) Four years
d) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Three years
135. Which facility allows banks to borrow overnight from RBI at a penal rate?
a) Repo Operations
b) Open Market Operations
c) Marginal Standing Facility
d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Marginal Standing Facility
136. Karbi Anglong is the largest district of which state?
a) Meghalaya
b) Manipur
c) Assam
d) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Assam
137. Karbi Anglong lies on which plateau?
a) Meghalaya Plateau
b) Shillong Plateau
c) Karbi Plateau
d) Mikir Hills Plateau
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Karbi Plateau
138. What is the headquarters of East Karbi Anglong?
a) Hamren
b) Diphu
c) Baithalangso
d) Bokajan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Diphu
139. What is the headquarters of West Karbi Anglong?
a) Hamren
b) Diphu
c) Howraghat
d) Donka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a) Hamren
140. The Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council operates under which Schedule of the Constitution?
a) Fifth Schedule
b) Sixth Schedule
c) Seventh Schedule
d) Eighth Schedule
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Sixth Schedule
141. The Karbi Anglong Peace Accord was signed in which year?
a) 2019
b) 2020
c) 2021
d) 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2021
142. Which Article of the Constitution allows Parliament to create an “Autonomous State” within Assam?
a) Article 243(A)
b) Article 244(A)
c) Article 245(A)
d) Article 246(A)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Article 244(A)
143. When is the lunar nuclear power plant targeted for deployment?
a) 2030-2032
b) 2033-2034
c) 2035-2036
d) 2037-2038
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2035-2036
144. The lunar nuclear project is part of which initiative?
a) Artemis Program
b) International Lunar Research Station (ILRS)
c) Gateway Program
d) Moon Village Initiative
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) International Lunar Research Station (ILRS)
145. The proposed location for the lunar base is near:
a) Mare Tranquillitatis
b) Moon’s north pole
c) Moon’s south pole
d) Oceanus Procellarum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Moon’s south pole
146. How long is the lunar night during which solar panels are ineffective?
a) 7 days
b) 10 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 14 days
147. Which treaty prohibits nuclear weapons in outer space but allows peaceful nuclear energy use?
a) Moon Agreement, 1979
b) Outer Space Treaty, 1967
c) Space Liability Convention, 1972
d) Registration Convention, 1975
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Outer Space Treaty, 1967
148. Atal Bihari Vajpayee was born in which year?
a) 1920
b) 1922
c) 1924
d) 1926
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1924
149. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya founded Banaras Hindu University in which year?
a) 1912
b) 1916
c) 1920
d) 1925
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1916
150. What is the indigenous content percentage of ICG Ship Samudra Pratap?
a) 60%
b) 65%
c) 72%
d) 80%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 72%
151. The Communist Party of India was formally founded in which year?
a) 1920
b) 1922
c) 1925
d) 1927
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1925
152. Where was the CPI officially founded?
a) Kolkata
b) Mumbai
c) Kanpur
d) Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Kanpur
153. Who was the first President of CPI?
a) M.N. Roy
b) S.V. Ghate
c) Singaravelu Chettiar
d) A.K. Gopalan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Singaravelu Chettiar
154. Where did a group of Indian revolutionaries first meet in 1920 to form CPI in exile?
a) Moscow
b) Tashkent
c) Berlin
d) London
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Tashkent
155. Which organization was associated with CPI’s worker mobilization?
a) Indian National Trade Union Congress
b) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
c) Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh
d) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
Show Answer
Correct Answer:b) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
156. In which years did CPI demand Poorna Swaraj in submissions to INC sessions?
a) 1919 and 1920
b) 1921 and 1922
c) 1925 and 1926
d) 1927 and 1928
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1921 and 1922
157. Who drafted a constitutional proposal for CPI in 1934?
a) A.K. Gopalan
b) E.M.S. Namboodiripad
c) M.N. Roy
d) S.A. Dange
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) M.N. Roy
158. What is manufacturing’s contribution to India’s GDP?
a) Around 12%
b) Around 17%
c) Around 22%
d) Around 27%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Around 17%
159. What percentage of China’s GDP comes from manufacturing?
a) 20-24%
b) 25-29%
c) 30-34%
d) 35-39%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 25-29%
160. What percentage of India’s workforce is employed in manufacturing?
a) 8.4%
b) 11.4%
c) 14.4%
d) 17.4%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 11.4%
161. What percentage of India’s workforce is employed in agriculture?
a) Around 35%
b) Around 45%
c) Around 55%
d) Around 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Around 45%
162. India’s GERD (Gross Expenditure on R&D) stands at what percentage of GDP?
a) 0.3-0.4%
b) 0.6-0.7%
c) 0.9-1.0%
d) 1.2-1.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 0.6-0.7%
163. India will chair the Kimberley Process from which date?
a) 1 January 2025
b) 1 January 2026
c) 1 July 2026
d) 1 January 2027
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1 January 2026
164. How many entities participate in the Kimberley Process?
a) 45
b) 50
c) 60
d) 75
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 60
165.The Kimberley Process covers what percentage of the world’s rough diamond trade?
a) Over 85%
b) Over 90%
c) Over 95%
d) Over 99%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Over 99%
166. The Kimberley Process is a tripartite mechanism involving all EXCEPT:
a) National governments
b) International diamond industry
c) Civil society organisations
d) Mining corporations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Mining corporations
167. “Conflict diamonds” are defined as rough diamonds used by:
a) Legal mining companies
b) Rebel groups to finance armed conflicts
c) Government agencies
d) International traders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Rebel groups to finance armed conflicts
168. The Constitution translation in Santhali was released by which ministry?
a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
b) Ministry of Culture
c) Ministry of Law and Justice
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Law and Justice
169. The Ol Chiki script was created by:
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) Pandit Raghunath Murmu
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d) Rabindranath Tagore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Pandit Raghunath Murmu
170. The Ol Chiki script was created in which year?
a) 1915
b) 1920
c) 1925
d) 1930
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1925
171. Santhali was added to the Eighth Schedule through which Constitutional Amendment?
a) 91st Amendment
b) 92nd Amendment
c) 93rd Amendment
d) 94th Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 92nd Amendment
172. The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in which year?
a) 2000
b) 2003
c) 2005
d) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2003
173. Santhali belongs to which language family?
a) Indo-Aryan
b) Dravidian
c) Austroasiatic (Austric)
d) Sino-Tibetan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Austroasiatic (Austric)
174. The Q Mark introduced by QCI is known as:
a) Bharat ka Nishan
b) Desh ka Haq
c) Quality ka Prateek
d) Bharatiya Gunvatta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Desh ka Haq
175. QCI is registered under which Act?
a) Companies Act, 2013
b) Societies Registration Act, 1860
c) Trust Act, 1882
d) Charitable Institutions Act, 1920
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Societies Registration Act, 1860
176. The Chairperson of QCI is appointed by:
a) President of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Minister of Commerce
d) Cabinet Secretary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Prime Minister of India
177. How many ITIs are planned for upgradation under PM-SETU?
a) 500
b) 750
c) 1,000
d) 1,500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1,000
178. In the SPV ownership pattern under PM-SETU, what is the industry partners’ share?
a) 49%
b) 51%
c) 60%
d) 75%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 51%
179. How many National Centres of Excellence (NCOEs) will be established under PM-SETU?
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Five
180. What is the operational range of the K-4 missile?
a) Approximately 2,500 km
b) Approximately 3,500 km
c) Approximately 4,500 km
d) Approximately 5,500 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Approximately 3,500 km
181. PMGSY was launched in which month and year?
a) October 2000
b) December 2000
c) January 2001
d) March 2001
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) December 2000
182. What is the physical progress achieved by PMGSY as of December 2025?
a) Nearly 85%
b) Nearly 90%
c) Nearly 95%
d) Nearly 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Nearly 95%
183. Total rural roads sanctioned under PMGSY are approximately:
a) ~6.25 lakh km
b) ~7.25 lakh km
c) ~8.25 lakh km
d) ~9.25 lakh km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ~8.25 lakh km
184. How many kilometers of roads have been completed under PMGSY?
a) ~6.87 lakh km
b) ~7.87 lakh km
c) ~8.87 lakh km
d) ~9.87 lakh km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ~7.87 lakh km
185. PMGSY functions under which ministry?
a) Ministry of Transport
b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
d) Ministry of Agriculture
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Rural Development
186. When was the Road Connectivity in LWE-Affected Areas launched?
a) 2014
b) 2016
c) 2018
d) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2016
187. PMGSY Phase II focusing on network consolidation was launched in: a constitutional proposal for CPI in 1934?
a) 2010
b) 2013
c) 2016
d) 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2013
188. PMGSY-IV (2024-2028) aims to connect how many habitations?
a) 15,000
b) 20,000
c) 25,000
d) 30,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 25,000
189. The road length target under PMGSY-IV is approximately:
a) ~42,500 km
b) ~52,500 km
c) ~62,500 km
d) ~72,500 km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ~62,500 km
190. PMKVY was launched in which year?
a) 2013
b) 2014
c) 2015
d) 2016
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2015
191. What percentage of funds for State components remained unspent as of March 2024?
a) Nearly 10%
b) Nearly 15%
c) Nearly 20%
d) Nearly 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Nearly 20%
192. What percentage of candidate records on the Skill India Portal had invalid or missing information?
a) Around 75%
b) Around 85%
c) Around 95%
d) Around 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Around 95%
193. What was the placement rate under PMKVY according to CAG?
a) 31%
b) 41%
c) 51%
d) 61%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 41%
194. For technical job roles, what percentage of certified candidates possessed only basic literacy?
a) 75.40%
b) 85.40%
c) 90.40%
d) 95.40%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 85.40%
195. How many candidates were trained under PMKVY 2.0?
a) ~80 lakh
b) ~1.10 crore
c) ~1.30 crore
d) ~1.50 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ~1.10 crore
196. Over how many youth have been trained under PMKVY since inception?
a) Over 1.2 crore
b) Over 1.4 crore
c) Over 1.6 crore
d) Over 1.8 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 1.6 crore
197. What percentage of PMKVY beneficiaries are women?
a) 35%
b) 40%
c) 45%
d) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 45%
198. How many coastal villages does India aim to make tsunami-ready?
a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 100
199. How many coastal villages in Odisha have been recognized as Tsunami Ready by UNESCO?
a) 18
b) 24
c) 30
d) 36
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 24
200. TRRP recognition validity is for:
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 4 years
201. Villages under TRRP are assessed on how many standardized preparedness indicators?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 12
202. The National Tsunami Ready Recognition Board (NTRB) functions under which ministry?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
c) Ministry of Environment
d) Ministry of Disaster Management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
203. Who chairs the National Tsunami Ready Recognition Board?
a) Director, IMD
b) Director, INCOIS
c) Secretary, Ministry of Earth Sciences
d) DG, NDMA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Director, INCOIS
204. UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission was established in:
a) 1955
b) 1960
c) 1965
d) 1970
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1960
205. How many Member States are part of UNESCO’s IOC?
a) 132
b) 142
c) 152
d) 162
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 152
206. The NITI Aayog report on gender parity is titled:
a) “Gender at Work”
b) “From Intent to Impact”
c) “Workplace Equality”
d) “Women in Workforce”
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) “From Intent to Impact”
207. How many women need to be added to India’s workforce to achieve growth targets?
a) 100 million
b) 125 million
c) 145 million
d) 175 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 145 million
208. Women constitute what percentage of STEM graduates in India?
a) ~33%
b) ~43%
c) ~53%
d) ~63%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ~43%
209. What percentage of working mothers report career setbacks post-childbirth?
a) Around 65%
b) Around 75%
c) Around 85%
d) Around 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Around 75%
300. Shaheed Udham Singh was born in which district?
a) Amritsar, Punjab
b) Sangrur, Punjab
c) Ludhiana, Punjab
d) Jalandhar, Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Sangrur, Punjab
301. Individual donations are permitted under which section of the RPA, 1951?
a) Section 28B
b) Section 29B
c) Section 30B
d) Section 31B
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Section 29B
302. Donations above what amount must be reported to the ECI?
a) ₹10,000
b) ₹15,000
c) ₹20,000
d) ₹25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) ₹20,000
303. Corporate funding is regulated by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
a) Section 172
b) Section 182
c) Section 192
d) Section 202
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Section 182
304. Corporate donations are capped at what percentage of average net profits?
a) 5.5%
b) 6.5%
c) 7.5%
d) 8.5%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 7.5%
305. A company must be at least how many years old to make political donations?
a) Two years
b) Three years
c) Four years
d) Five years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Three years
306. The Electoral Trust Scheme was introduced in which year?
a) 2010
b) 2013
c) 2015
d) 2018
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2013
307. Electoral Trusts must disburse what minimum percentage of annual receipts to political parties?
a) 90%
b) 95%
c) 98%
d) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 95%
308. Electoral Trusts must be renewed every:
a) Two financial years
b) Three financial years
c) Four financial years
d) Five financial years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Three financial years
309. Which committee in 1998 supported state funding to reduce disparities?
a) Dinesh Goswami Committee
b) Indrajit Gupta Committee
c) Tarkunde Committee
d) N.N. Vohra Committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Indrajit Gupta Committee
410. The Law Commission recommended total state funding in which year?
a) 1995
b) 1999
c) 2003
d) 2008
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 1999
411. India withdrew from RCEP in which year?
a) 2017
b) 2019
c) 2021
d) 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2019
412. RCEP accounts for approximately what percentage of global GDP?
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 30%
413. How many RCEP members does India now have trade agreements with (excluding China)?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 15
d) All 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 14
414. The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) has been operational since:
a) 2005
b) 2010
c) 2015
d) 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2010
415. India-South Korea CEPA was signed in which year?
a) 2008
b) 2010
c) 2012
d) 2014
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2010
416. India-Japan CEPA was signed in which year?
a) 2009
b) 2011
c) 2013
d) 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2011
417. India-Australia ECTA was signed in which year?
a) 2020
b) 2022
c) 2024
d) 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2022
418. India-New Zealand FTA negotiations concluded in:
a) June 2025
b) September 2025
c) December 2025
d) January 2026
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) December 2025
419. Green hydrogen is considered “green” if lifecycle emissions are:
a) ≤ 1 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen
b) ≤ 2 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen
c) ≤ 3 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen
d) ≤ 5 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ≤ 2 kg CO₂e per kg of hydrogen
420. The National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in which year?
a) 2021
b) 2022
c) 2023
d) 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2023
421. What is India’s green hydrogen production target by 2030?
a) 3 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT)
b) 5 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT)
c) 7 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT)
d) 10 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 5 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT)
422. India aims for Net Zero by which year?
a) 2050
b) 2060
c) 2070
d) 2080
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 2070
423. India’s total installed energy capacity as of 2025 is:
a) 400.89 GW
b) 450.89 GW
c) 500.89 GW
d) 550.89 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 500.89 GW
424. India’s solar energy capacity is:
a) 107.33 GW
b) 117.33 GW
c) 127.33 GW
d) 137.33 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 127.33 GW
425. India’s wind energy capacity is:
a) 43.12 GW
b) 53.12 GW
c) 63.12 GW
d) 73.12 GW
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 53.12 GW
426. Which authority is nodal for accrediting certification agencies under GHCI?
a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
c) Central Electricity Authority
d) NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
427.SIGHT Scheme provides financial incentives till which year?
a) 2027-28
b) 2029-30
c) 2031-32
d) 2033-34
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2029-30
428. Which port is NOT identified as a Green Hydrogen Hub?
a) Deendayal Port, Gujarat
b) V.O. Chidambaranar Port, Tamil Nadu
c) Paradip Port, Odisha
d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Maharashtra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Maharashtra
429. Who advocated for a standardized ATS framework across all States?
a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
b) Union Home Minister Amit Shah
c) Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
d) National Security Advisor Ajit Doval
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Union Home Minister Amit Shah
430. China’s superconducting maglev test vehicle achieved what speed?
a) Amritsar, Punjab
b) Sangrur, Punjab
c) Ludhiana, Punjab
d) Jalandhar, Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 700 km/h
431. The India-Australia ECTA was signed on:
a) 2 April 2020
b) 2 April 2022
c) 2 April 2023
d) 2 April 2024
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2 April 2022
432. The India-Australia ECTA was implemented from:
a) June 2022
b) September 2022
c) December 2022
d) March 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) December 2022
433. Australia provides duty-free access for Indian exports on what percentage of tariff lines from day one?
a) Over 85%
b) Over 90%
c) Over 95%
d) 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 95%
434. By when will Australia provide 100% duty-free access to Indian exports?
a) January 2025
b) January 2026
c) January 2027
d) January 2028
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) January 2026
435. Which joint military exercise is conducted bilaterally between India and Australia?
a) Malabar
b) AUSINDEX
c) Indra
d) Varuna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) AUSINDEX
436. The Water Guardians initiative is located in which country?
a) Spain
b) Portugal
c) Hungary
d) Greece
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Hungary
437. How many people globally are affected by desertification?
a) 150 million
b) 250 million
c) 350 million
d) 450 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 250 million
438. How many hectares of land are affected by desertification globally?
a) Over 2 billion hectares
b) Over 3 billion hectares
c) Over 4 billion hectares
d) Over 5 billion hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over 4 billion hectares
439. India’s National Action Plan to Combat Desertification targets restoration of how many hectares by 2030?
a) 16 million hectares
b) 26 million hectares
c) 36 million hectares
d) 46 million hectares
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 26 million hectares
440. The Aravalli Green Wall Initiative covers how many districts?
a) 19
b) 24
c) 29
d) 34
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 29
441. How many members does the WTO have?
a) 146
b) 156
c) 166
d) 176
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 166
442. What does S&DT stand for in WTO terminology?
a) Standard & Development Treatment
b) Special & Differential Treatment
c) Structural & Development Terms
d) Special & Development Terms
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Special & Differential Treatment
443. The US wants to restrict S&DT largely to which countries?
a) Developing countries
b) Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
c) Emerging economies
d) All developing nations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
444. According to EY, India is projected to become a $26 trillion economy by:
a) 2045-46
b) 2047-48
c) 2049-50
d) 2050-51
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 2047-48
445. What is India’s projected per capita income by 2047-48?
a) Over $10,000
b) Over $12,000
c) Over $15,000
d) Over $18,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) Over $15,000
446. Real GDP grew by what percentage in Q2 FY 2025-26?
a) 7.2%
b) 8.2%
c) 9.2%
d) 10.2%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 8.2%
447. India’s services exports reached what amount in 2021-22?
a) $204.5 billion
b) $234.5 billion
c) $254.5 billion
d) $274.5 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) $254.5 billion
448. How much did IT & BPO contribute to India’s services exports?
a) $127 billion
b) $147 billion
c) $157 billion
d) $167 billion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) $157 billion
449. India hosts how many Global Capability Centres (GCCs)?
a) 1,000
b) 1,200
c) 1,500
d) 1,800
Show Answer
Correct Answer: c) 1,500
450. What percentage of global GCCs are hosted by India?
a) 35%
b) 45%
c) 55%
d) 65%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 45%
451. India has how many internet users?
a) 737 million
b) 837 million
c) 937 million
d) 1,037 million
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 837 million
452. What percentage of India’s population is aged 10-24?
a) ~20%
b) ~26%
c) ~32%
d) ~38%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) ~26%
453. Banking fraud amount jumped by what percentage in April-September 2025?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 30%
454. Card & internet frauds account for what percentage of total fraud cases?
a) 56.8%
b) 66.8%
c) 76.8%
d) 86.8%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 66.8%
455. Private Banks account for what percentage of fraud cases?
a) 49.3%
b) 59.3%
c) 69.3%
d) 79.3%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 59.3%
456. Public Sector Banks account for what percentage of total fraud amount?
a) 60.7%
b) 70.7%
c) 80.7%
d) 90.7%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 70.7%
457. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was born on:
a) 23 January 1895
b) 23 January 1897
c) 23 January 1899
d) 23 January 1901
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 23 January 1897
458. The number “120” in Pinaka LRGR-120 indicates:
a) Maximum payload in kg
b) Maximum strike range of approximately 120 km
c) Number of rockets in the system
d) Launch speed in km/h
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Maximum strike range of approximately 120 km
459. Which country has procured the Pinaka system?
a) Greece
b) Armenia
c) Serbia
d) Bulgaria
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) Armenia
460. INSV Kaundinya is modeled after a stitched ship from which century?
a) 3rd century CE
b) 5th century CE
c) 7th century CE
d) 9th century CE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b) 5th century CE
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